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NEW QUESTION 1
What default layers are included when creating a new policy layer?

  • A. Application Control, URL Filtering and Threat Prevention
  • B. Access Control, Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection
  • C. Firewall, Application Control and IPSec VPN
  • D. Firewall, Application Control and IPS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
When a SAM rule is required on Security Gateway to quickly block suspicious connections which are not restricted by the Security Policy, what actions does the administrator need to take?

  • A. SmartView Monitor should be opened and then the SAM rule/s can be applied immediatel
  • B. Installing policy is not required.
  • C. The policy type SAM must be added to the Policy Package and a new SAM rule must be applied.Simply Publishing the changes applies the SAM rule on the firewall.
  • D. The administrator must work on the firewall CLI (for example with SSH and PuTTY) and the command 'sam block' must be used with the right parameters.
  • E. The administrator should open the LOGS & MONITOR view and find the relevant lo
  • F. Right clicking on the log entry will show the Create New SAM rule option.

Answer: A

Explanation:
A Security GatewayClosed with SAM enabled has Firewall rules to block suspicious connections that are not restricted by the security policyClosed. These rules are applied immediately (policy installation is not required).
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81_LoggingAndMonitoring_AdminGu

NEW QUESTION 3
You have enabled "Extended Log" as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information. What is the MOST likely reason?

  • A. Identity Awareness is not enabled.
  • B. Log Trimming is enabled.
  • C. Logging has disk space issues
  • D. Content Awareness is not enabled.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4
Fill in the blank: The position of an implied rule is manipulated in the ________ window.

  • A. NAT
  • B. Firewall
  • C. Global Properties
  • D. Object Explorer

Answer: C

Explanation:
"Note - In addition, users can access the Implied Rules configurations through Global Properties and use the implied policy view below Configuration." https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=

NEW QUESTION 5
From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

  • A. Verify a Security Policy
  • B. Open a terminal shell
  • C. Add a static route
  • D. View Security Management GUI Clients

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6
Fill in the blank: An Endpoint identity agent uses a _______ for user authentication.

  • A. Shared secret
  • B. Token
  • C. Username/password or Kerberos Ticket
  • D. Certificate

Answer: C

Explanation:
Two ways of auth: Username/Password in Captive Portal or Transparent Kerberos Auth through Kerberos Ticket. https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81_IdentityAwareness_AdminGuide/T

NEW QUESTION 7
What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?

  • A. URL Filtering and Network
  • B. Network and Threat Prevention
  • C. Application Control and URL Filtering
  • D. Network and Application Control

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

  • A. write mem <filename>
  • B. show config -f <filename>
  • C. save config -o <filename>
  • D. save configuration <filename>

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9
Which two Identity Awareness daemons are used to support identity sharing?

  • A. Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)
  • B. Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)
  • C. Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)
  • D. Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

Answer: D

Explanation:
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=

NEW QUESTION 10
Which type of attack can a firewall NOT prevent?

  • A. Network Bandwidth Saturation
  • B. Buffer Overflow
  • C. SYN Flood
  • D. SQL Injection

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11
With URL Filtering, what portion of the traffic is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service for analysis?

  • A. The complete communication is sent for inspection.
  • B. The IP address of the source machine.
  • C. The end user credentials.
  • D. The host portion of the URL.

Answer: D

Explanation:
"A local cache that gives answers to 99% of URL categorization requests. When the cache does not have an answer, only the host name is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service for categorization. " https://downloads.checkpoint.com/fileserver/SOURCE/direct/ID/24853/FILE/CP_R77_ApplicationControlURL

NEW QUESTION 12
In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?

  • A. Limit
  • B. Resource
  • C. Custom Application / Site
  • D. Network Object

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13
Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?

  • A. Basic – Provides reliable protection on a range of non-HTTP protocols for servers, with minimal impact on network performance
  • B. Optimized – Provides excellent protection for common network products and protocols against recent or popular attacks
  • C. Strict – Provides a wide coverage for all products and protocols, with impact on network performance
  • D. Recommended – Provides all protection for all common network products and servers, with impact on network performance

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14
Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security GateWay by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _______.

  • A. Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.
  • B. Sent to the Security Administrator.
  • C. Stored on the Security Management Server.
  • D. Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 15
Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?

  • A. Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)
  • B. Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)
  • C. Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)
  • D. Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 16
When using Automatic Hide NAT, what is enabled by default?

  • A. Source Port Address Translation (PAT)
  • B. Static NAT
  • C. Static Route
  • D. HTTPS Inspection

Answer: A

Explanation:
Hiding multiple IP addresses behind one, gateway, IP address requires PAT to differentiate between traffic.

NEW QUESTION 17
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