Oracle 1z0-974 Dumps 2021

NEW QUESTION 1
Which is the correct definition of the Performance Obligation Liability on the balance sheet, replacing the Deferred Revenue liability?

• A. your invoiced goods and services less those goods and services that you have not yet delivered
• B. your debt to customers for goods and services you are obliged to deliver to them by either party acting less your right to invoice them for those goods and services once delivered
• C. Unearned Revenue
• D. your debt to customers for goods and services you are obliged to deliver to them by either party acting

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
Which configuration component is Source Document Type NOT connected to?

• A. Revenue Management System Options
• B. Performance Obligation Template
• C. Contract Identification Rules
• D. Revenue Price Profile
• E. Performance Obligation Identification Rules

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3
A pricing dimension segment value combination is one of the factors to determine standalone selling prices. This combination is based on the pricing dimension assignment setup.
What does the pricing dimension assignment match the pricing dimension segment combination to?

• A. pricing bands
• B. a pricing dimension structure
• C. the source document types
• D. a pricing dimension structure instance

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
How many tabs does the Customer Contract Source Data Import Template have?

• A. four tabs that store data for theVRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS, VRM_SOURCE_DOC_LINES, VRM_SOURCE_DOC_SUB_UNES, andVRM_PERF_OBLIG tables respectively
• B. three tabs that store data for the VRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS, VRM_SOURCE_DOC_LINES, and VRM_SOURCE_DOC_SUB_LINES tables respectively
• C. two tabs that store data for the VRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS and VRM_SOURCE_DOC_LINES tables respectively
• D. one tab that stores data for the VRM_SOURCE_DOCUMENTS table

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5
After analyzing sales documents for your organization, you conclude that it will be appropriate to group transaction lines by customer to create contracts In Revenue Management.
Which predefined Contract Identification Rule can be used in this case?

• A. Identify Customer Contract Based on Party
• B. Identify Customer Contract Based on Source Document Line
• C. Identify Customer Contract Based on Source Document
• D. Identify Customer Contract Based on Source System

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
Which three statements about Effective Periods are true?

• A. If effective periods are not defined, Revenue Management uses the General Ledger calendar.
• B. Effective Periods are used for standalone selling prices and for creating journal entries.
• C. Gaps between periods are not allowed.
• D. You cannot have overlapping periods.
• E. Effective Periods only define the rage where standalone selling prices of an item should be effective.

Answer: ACE

Explanation: 20. Which three tasks are associated with defining a Pricing Dimension Structure?
A. Define up to 30 segments and name them.
B. Define up to 20 segments and name them.
C. Analyze pricing policies across products and services.
D. Create multiple instances for a given Pricing Dimension Structure.
E. Include user friendly prompts for each segment.
F. Assign required segment labels to each segment.

NEW QUESTION 7
Which two are intended uses for the Standalone Selling Price Report Dashboard?

• A. Review performance obligations by effective period.
• B. Diagnose revenue price profile.
• C. Drill down to data used to derive standalone selling prices.
• D. Monitor transaction price calculation and allocation.
• E. Analyze standalone selling prices for one or multiple effective period

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 8
What is a contract modification?

• A. a change to the contract caused by negotiation with the customer
• B. a revision or correction to the estimate of variable consideration made at inception
• C. a change (modification) to the contract data
• D. an increase or decrease in expected collectability

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
In order to have Revenue Management calculate Observed Standalone Selling Prices, four steps must be completed.
Which two are NOT included in the four step process?

• A. Close the previous period.
• B. Review the calculated OSSP.
• C. Categorize standalone sales by performance obligation.
• D. Approve the OSSP by establishing it.
• E. Run the Calculate Observed Standalone Selling Prices program.
• F. Run Create Accountin

Answer: AF

NEW QUESTION 10
Given It Is critical to capture common link values In one or more attributes on the source document lines in order to build effective Performance Obligation Identification Rules, how many User Extensible Fields does Revenue Management provide to facilitate the capture of this data?

• A. 60 User Extensible Fields
• B. 10 User Extensible Fields
• C. 90 User Extensible Fields
• D. 50 User Extensible Fields

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 11
Why Is Satisfaction Method a key element of a Performance Obligation?

• A. because it determines whether revenue for a good or service is recognized Over Time or Point in Time
• B. because it calculates the amount of Total Transaction Price allocated to date
• C. because it calculates the percentage of Total Transaction Price allocated to date
• D. because it specifies whether revenue has been fully or partially recognized for a good or service

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12
Which three tasks can be performed In the Revenue Management Work Area?

• A. Edit Contract Identification Rules.
• B. Review Observed Standalone Selling Prices.
• C. Manage contracts in "Pending Review" status.
• D. Manage contracts in "Pending Allocation" status.
• E. Review Performance Satisfaction Plans.
• F. Review Revenue Price Profile

Answer: BCD

NEW QUESTION 13
What does the creation of an allocation allow you to determine?

• A. the ability not to revise previously reported revenue for revision, corrections, and other changes
• B. the fair value of each performance obligation
• C. the maximum amount of revenue you can recognize soonest, postponing the minimum until later
• D. an allocation of the expected consideration over the performance obligations as if you had sold them separately

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14
Given Revenue Management uses the Subledger Accounting engine to create journal entries from customer contracts, which Is NOT a predefined Accounting Class?

• A. Contract Asset
• B. Contract Price Variance
• C. Contract Liability
• D. Contract Revenue
• E. Contract Expense
• F. Contract Clearing

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 15
When is it required to populate a value for Performance Satisfaction Plan In a Source Document Type?

• A. when the Satisfaction Measurement Model is set to Amount
• B. when the Satisfaction Measurement Model is set to Period
• C. when the Satisfaction Measurement Model is set to Quantity
• D. when the Satisfaction Measurement Model Is set to Percentage

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 16
Given Oracle Revenue Management Cloud has predefined integration with Oracle E-Business Suite Financials, which two steps are NOT part of the steps to configure EBS for integration with Revenue Management Cloud?

• A. Apply appropriate patches to EBS.
• B. Run the Deploy System Options process.
• C. Set the Profile Option AR: Source System Value for Revenue Management.
• D. Map the EBS Chart of Accounts to the Cloud General Ledger.
• E. Set the System Options in EBS Receivables on the Revenue Management ta

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 17
Given the Identify Customer Contracts Job set performs many different processes, which action Is NOT performed by this job set?

• A. allocates the SSP to various satisfaction events
• B. creates the accounting for the stages in the process
• C. allocates the SSP to various performance obligations
• D. recognizes revenue if any satisfaction events exist
• E. creates customer contracts and performance obligations

Answer: D