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Q271. Which BGP feature allows BGP routing tables to be refreshed without impacting established BGP sessions? 

A. BGP synchronization 

B. soft reconfiguration 

C. confederations 

D. hard reset 

Answer: B 

Explanation: 

Clearing a BGP session using a hard reset invalidates the cache and results in a negative impact on the operation of networks as the information in the cache becomes unavailable. Soft reset is recommended because it allows routing tables to be reconfigured and activated without clearing the BGP session. Soft reset is done on a per-neighbor basis. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps6599/products_data_sheet09186a0080087b3a.ht ml 


Q272. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which statement is true? 

A. There is no issue with forwarding IPv6 traffic from this router. 

B. IPv6 traffic can be forwarded from this router, but only on Ethernet1/0. 

C. IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on this router. 

D. Some IPv6 traffic will be blackholed from this router. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

Here we see that the IPV6 default route shows two different paths to take, one via Ethernet 1/0 and one via Ethernet 0/0. However, only Eth 1/0 shows a next hop IPV6 address (the link local IPV6 address). There is no link local next hop addressed known on Eth 0/0. Therefore, traffic to all destinations will be load balanced over the two paths, but only half of the IPv6 traffic will be sent to the correct upstream router. 


Q273. Refer to the exhibit. 

Why is R2 unable to ping the loopback interface of R4? 

A. The local preference is too high. 

B. The weight is too low. 

C. The next hop is not reachable from R2. 

D. The route originated from within the same AS. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: 

Before a BGP speaker installs a route to a network in the main IP routing table, the router must know how to reach the next hop that is used to get to that network. Route reachability is verified by searching for a route to the next hop in the main IP routing table. Unlike IGP routing protocols, such as EIGRP and OSPF, which assume that a route is reachable if they learned it through a valid adjacency, BGP does not install routes that it cannot verify as reachable. If a route to the next hop for a BGP network is found in the main IP routing table, BGP assumes that the network is reachable, and that the particular BGP route might be stored in the main IP routing table. If the router receives a route to a network that is not reachable, that route continues to be stored in the incoming BGP table, adj-RIB-In, and might be seen using the show ip bgp command, but is not placed in the main IP routing table. 

Reference: https://www.informit.com/library/content.aspx?b=CCIE_Practical_Studies_II&seqNum=75 


Q274. Which statement about BGP and diverse path advertisement is true? 

A. The BGP best-path selection must be disabled. 

B. The BGP best-path selection algorithm has been changed to always ignore the IGP metric. 

C. The BGP best-path selection algorithm has been changed so that two BGP paths can be flagged as best in the BGP table. 

D. The BGP best-path selection algorithm has not been changed. 

E. The BGP best-path selection is disabled for BGP routes for which the feature is enabled. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

The BGP Diverse Path Using a Diverse-Path Route Reflector feature allows BGP to distribute an alternative path other than the best path between BGP speakers when route reflectors are deployed. This additional path is added to the best-path, and the best path algorithm still remains unchanged. 


Q275. Refer to the exhibit. 

All switches have default bridge priorities, and originate BPDUs with MAC addresses as indicated. The numbers shown are STP link metrics. 

After STP converges, you discover that traffic from switch SWG toward switch SWD takes a less optimal path. What can you do to optimize the STP tree in this switched network? 

A. Change the priority of switch SWA to a lower value than the default value. 

B. Change the priority of switch SWB to a higher value than the default value. 

C. Change the priority of switch SWG to a higher value than the default value. 

D. Change the priority of switch SWD to a lower value than the default value. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

In this topology, we see that all port paths and priorities are the same, so the lowest MAC address will be used to determine the best STP path. From SWG, SWE will be chosen as the next switch in the path because it has a lower MAC address than SWF. From SWE, traffic will go to SWC because it has a lower MAC address, and then to SWD, instead of going from SWE directly to SWD. If we lower the priority of SWD (lower means better with STP) then traffic will be sent directly to SWD. 


Q276. DRAG DROP 

Drag and drop each step of the Unicast RPF process on the left into the correct order on the right. 

Answer: 


Q277. DRAG DROP 

Drag and drop the PPPoE packet type on the left to the corresponding description on the right. 

Answer: 


Q278. Which three statements are true about unicast RPF? (Choose three.) 

A. Unicast RPF requires CEF to be enabled. 

B. Unicast RPF strict mode works better with multihomed networks. 

C. Unicast RPF strict mode supports symmetric paths. 

D. Unicast RPF strict mode supports asymmetric paths. 

E. CEF is optional with Unicast RPF, but when CEF is enabled it provides better performance. 

F. Unicast RPF loose mode is typically used with ISP networks. 

Answer: A,C,F 


Q279. Which statement describes the difference between a stub area and a totally stub area? 

A. The ABR advertises a default route to a totally stub area and not to a stub area. 

B. Stub areas do not allow LSA types 4 and 5, while totally stub areas do not allow LSA types 3, 4, and 5. 

C. Totally stub areas allow limited external routes in the area via a special type 7 LSA, while stub areas do not. 

D. Stub areas do not allow external LSAs, ASBR summary LSAs, or summary LSAs with the exception of a default route originated by the ABR via a summary LSA. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: 

. Standard areas can contain LSAs of type 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5, and may contain an ASBR. The backbone is considered a standard area. 

. Stub areas can contain type 1, 2, and 3 LSAs. A default route is substituted for external routes. 

. Totally stubby areas can only contain type 1 and 2 LSAs, and a single type 3 LSA. The type 3 LSA describes a default route, substituted for all external and inter-area routes. 

. Not-so-stubby areas implement stub or totally stubby functionality yet contain an ASBR. Type 7 LSAs generated by the ASBR are converted to type 5 by ABRs to be flooded to the rest of the OSPF domain. 

Reference: http://packetlife.net/blog/2008/jun/24/ospf-area-types/ 


Q280. Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true? 

A. The multicast address 0100.0cdd.dddd is used as the destination address for periodic advertisements. 

B. An inactive VLAN that is configured on an access port passes periodic Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements. 

C. The multicast address 0100.0ccc.ccd is used as the destination address for periodic advertisements. 

D. A VLAN must be active on an access port before periodic Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are passed. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

All CDP packets include a VLAN ID. If you configure CDP on a Layer 2 access port, the CDP packets sent from that access port include the access port VLAN ID. If you configure CDP on a Layer 2 trunk port, the CDP packets sent from that trunk port include the lowest configured VLAN ID allowed on that trunk port. CDP messages on the active physical interfaces (Ethernet NIC) to a well-known multicast address (0100.0CCC.CCCC.