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Q57. Which of the following NIST Special Publication documents provides a guideline on network security testing?
A. NIST SP 800-42
B. NIST SP 800-53A
C. NIST SP 800-60
D. NIST SP 800-53
E. NIST SP 800-37
F. NIST SP 800-59
Answer: A
Explanation: NIST SP 800-42 provides a guideline on network security testing. Answer: E, D, B, F, and C are incorrect. NIST has developed a suite of documents for conducting Certification & Accreditation (C&A). These documents are as follows: NIST Special Publication 800-37: This document is a guide for the security certification and accreditation of Federal Information Systems. NIST Special Publication 800-53: This document provides a guideline for security controls for Federal Information Systems. NIST Special Publication 800-53A. This document consists of techniques and procedures for verifying the effectiveness of security controls in Federal Information System. NIST Special Publication 800-59: This document is a guideline for identifying an information system as a National Security System. NIST Special Publication 800-60: This document is a guide for mapping types of information and information systems to security objectives and risk levels.
Q58. The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in Phase 3. What are the process activities of this phase? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Security operations
B. Maintenance of the SSAA
C. Compliance validation
D. Change management
E. System operations
F. Continue to review and refine the SSAA
Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Explanation: The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in the Phase 3. The goal of this phase is to continue to operate and manage the system and to ensure that it will maintain an acceptable level of residual risk. The process activities of this phase are as follows: System operations Security operations Maintenance of the SSAA Change management Compliance validation Answer: F is incorrect. It is a Phase 3 activity.
Q59. Which of the following types of signatures is used in an Intrusion Detection System to trigger on attacks that attempt to reduce the level of a resource or system, or to cause it to crash?
A. Access
B. Benign
C. DoS
D. Reconnaissance
Answer: C
Explanation: Following are the basic categories of signatures: Informational (benign): These types of signatures trigger on normal network activity. For example: ICMP echo requests The opening or closing of TCP or UDP connections Reconnaissance: These types of signatures trigger on attacks that uncover resources and hosts that are reachable, as well as any possible vulnerabilities that they might contain. For example: Reconnaissance attacks include ping sweeps DNS queries Port scanning Access: These types of signatures trigger on access attacks, which include unauthorized access, unauthorized escalation of privileges, and access to protected or sensitive data. For example:
Back Orifice A Unicode attack against the Microsoft IIS NetBus DoS: These types of signatures trigger on attacks that attempt to reduce the level of a resource or system, or to cause it to crash. For example: TCP SYN floods The Ping of Death Smurf Fraggle Trinoo Tribe Flood Network
Q60. Which of the following processes provides a standard set of activities, general tasks, and a management structure to certify and accredit systems, which maintain the information assurance and the security posture of a system or site?
A. NSA-IAM
B. NIACAP
C. ASSET
D. DITSCAP
Answer: B
Explanation: NIACAP is a process, which provides a standard set of activities, general tasks, and a management structure to certify and accredit systems that maintain the information assurance and the security posture of a system or site. Answer: D is incorrect. DITSCAP is a process, which establishes a standard process, a set of activities, general task descriptions, and a management structure to certify and accredit the IT systems that will maintain the required security posture. Answer: A is incorrect. The NSA-IAM evaluates information systems at a high level and uses a subset of the SSE-CMM process areas to measure the implementation of information security on these systems. Answer: C is incorrect. ASSET is a tool developed by NIST to automate the process of self-assessment through the use of the questionnaire in NIST.
Q61. You work as a Security Manager for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows based network. It is required to determine compatibility of the systems with custom applications. Which of the following techniques will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Safe software storage
B. Antivirus management
C. Backup control
D. Software testing
Answer: D
Explanation: In order to accomplish the task, you should use the software testing technique. By using this technique you can determine compatibility of systems with custom applications or you can identify other unforeseen interactions. You can also use the software testing technique while you are upgrading software. Answer: B is incorrect. You can use the antivirus management to save the systems from viruses, unexpected software interactions, and the subversion of security controls. Answer: A is incorrect. You can use the safe software storage technique to ensure that the software and backup copies have not been modified without authorization. Answer: C is incorrect. You can use the backup control to perform back up of software and data.
Q62. You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You with your team are using a method or a (technical) process that conceives the risks even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied. One of your team member wants to know that what is a
residual risk. What will you reply to your team member?
A. It is a risk that remains because no risk response is taken.
B. It is a risk that can not be addressed by a risk response.
C. It is a risk that will remain no matter what type of risk response is offered.
D. It is a risk that remains after planned risk responses are taken.
Answer: D
Explanation: Residual risks are generally smaller risks that remain in the project after larger risks have been addressed. The residual risk is the risk or danger of an action or an event, a method or a (technical) process that still conceives these dangers even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied. The formula to calculate residual risk is (inherent risk) x (control risk) where inherent risk is (threats vulnerability). Answer: B is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about residual risks. Answer: C is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about residual risks. Answer: A is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about residual risks.
Q63. Which of the following testing methods tests the system efficiency by systematically selecting the suitable and minimum set of tests that are required to effectively cover the affected changes?
A. Unit testing
B. Integration testing
C. Acceptance testing
D. Regression testing
Answer: D
Explanation: Regression testing focuses on finding defects after a major code change has occurred. Specifically, it seeks to uncover software regressions, or old bugs that have come back. Such regressions occur whenever software functionality that was previously working correctly stops working as intended. Typically, regressions occur as an unintended consequence of program changes, when the newly developed part of the software collides with the previously existing code. Regression testing tests the system efficiency by systematically selecting the suitable and minimum set of tests that are required to effectively cover the affected changes. Answer: A is incorrect. Unit testing is a type of testing in which each independent unit of an application is tested separately. During unit testing, a developer takes the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. Drivers and stubs are programs. A driver simulates a calling unit, and a stub simulates a called unit. Answer: C is incorrect. Acceptance testing is performed on the application before its implementation into the production environment. It is done either by a client or an application specialist to ensure that the software meets the requirement for which it was made. Answer: B is incorrect. Integration testing is a software testing that seeks to verify the interfaces between components against a software design. Software components may be integrated in an iterative way or all together ("big bang"). Normally the former is considered a better practice since it allows interface issues to be localized more quickly and fixed. Integration testing works to expose defects in the interfaces and interaction between the integrated components (modules). Progressively larger groups of tested software components corresponding to elements of the architectural design are integrated and tested until the software works as a system.
Q64. Fred is the project manager of the CPS project. He is working with his project team to prioritize the identified risks within the CPS project. He and the team are prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining the risks probability of occurrence and impact. What process is Fred completing?
A. Risk identification
B. Risk Breakdown Structure creation
C. Perform qualitative analysis
D. Perform quantitative analysis
Answer: C
Explanation: Qualitative ranks the probability and impact and then helps the project manager and team to determine which risks need further analysis. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis and action. It combines risks and their probability of occurrences and ranks them accordingly. It enables organizations to improve the project's performance by focusing on high-priority risks. Perform Qualitative
Risk Analysis is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses. It also lays the foundation for Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis. Answer: A is incorrect. Risk identification precedes this activity. Answer: B is incorrect. This process does not describe the decomposition and organization of risks that you will complete in a risk breakdown structure.
Answer: D is incorrect. Quantitative analysis is the final step of risk analysis. Note the question tells you that Fred and the team will identify risks for additional analysis.