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Q111. As part of a privacy and security training program, the hospital staff are given a series of documents to look over and become familiar with. These documents are important for HIPAA regulation and for preventing unauthorized use and disclosure of PHI. Many patients are given one or more of these documents to sign or look over when they are first treated at a healthcare facility. Which of these is a HIPAA required document to be given to all patients?
A. Subpoena ducus tecum
B. Release of Information
C. Notice of Privacy Practices
D. Notice of Billing Practices
Answer: C
Explanation: Healthcare providers must, unless in an emergency treatment situation, distribute a Notice of Privacy Practices. The notice must describe the ways in which the covered entity may use and disclose PHI. The notice must state the covered entity's duties to protect privacy, and. describe individuals' rights, including the right to complain to HHS and to the covered entity if they believe their privacy rights have been violated. The notice must include a point of contact for further information and for making complaints to the covered entity. Also, the facility must obtain an acknowledgement from the patient that they received the notice of privacy practices, and have that acknowledgement on record. Answer: D is incorrect. Although many facilities do give notices of billing practices or insurance responsibility practices to their patients, this is not a required document according to HIPAA Privacy or Security Rules. Answer: A is incorrect. A subpoena ducus tecum is a notice to appear in court with certain specified documents to provide evidence during a lawsuit. It is not a required document in HIPAA regulation and would not be a document given to a patient. Answer: B is incorrect. A request for Release of Information is an important document for controlling access to PHI, but it is not a document that is required to be given to patients by HIPAA. Having a clear Release of information (ROI) policy and documentation is very important, but an ROI document is often not given to patients, but to other entities request access to information that requires patient and facility authorization.
Q112. You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. All the computers on the network are connected to a switch device. Users complain that they are unable to connect to a file server. You try to ping the client computers from the server, but the pinging fails. You try to ping the server's own loopback address, but it fails to ping. You restart the server, but the problem persists. What is the most likely cause?
A. The cable that connects the server to the switch is broken.
B. The server's NIC is not working.
C. The switch device is not working.
D. Automatic IP addressing is not working.
Answer: B
Explanation: According to the question. ping the loopback address of the server failed. If pinging the server's own loopback address fails, it shows that the server's NIC is not working. Loopback addresses are IP addresses with 127 in their first octet. These addresses are used to test TCP/IP configuration. It uses a loopback driver to reroute the outgoing packets back to the source computer. Answer: D is incorrect. Automatic IP addressing is out of context for this scenario. Answer: A is incorrect. The cable connection is not the likely issue, as you are unable to ping the server's own loopback address. If the cable connection between the server and the switch was broken, you would have had to at least ping the server's loopback address. Answer: C is incorrect. The failure of the pinging of the loopback address indicates that the problem is with the NIC.
Q113. Which of the following is a mechanism that allows authentication of dial-in and other network connections?
A. RADIUS
B. VPN
C. Single Sign-On
D. NTFS
Answer: A
Explanation: RADIUS is a mechanism that allows authentication of dial-in and other network connections. RADIUS is a client/server protocol that runs in the application layer, using UDP as transport. The Remote Access Server, the Virtual Private Network server, the Network switch with port-based authentication, and the Network Access Server are all gateways that control access to the network, and all have a RADIUS client component that communicates with the RADIUS server. The RADIUS server is usually a background process running on a UNIX or Windows NT machine. RADIUS serves three functions: To authenticate users or devices before granting them access to a network To authorize those users or devices for certain network services To account for usage of those services Answer: C is incorrect. Single Sign-On is an approach which involves a server that acts as an online certificate authority within a single sign-on system. A single sign-on server will issue digital certificates into the client system, but never stores them. Users can execute programs, etc. with the temporary certificate. It is common to find this solution variety with x.509-based certificates. Answer: D is incorrect. NTFS is a high-performance file system proprietary to Microsoft. NTFS supports file-level security, compression, and auditing. It also supports large volumes and powerful storage solution such as RAID. The latest feature of NTFS is its ability to encrypt files and folders to protect sensitive data. Answer: B is incorrect. A virtual private network (VPN) is a form of wide area network (WAN) that supplies network connectivity over a possibly long physical distance. A virtual private network is a network that uses a public telecommunication infrastructure, such as the Internet, to provide remote offices or individual users with secure access to their organization's network. A virtual private network can be contrasted with an expensive system of owned or leased lines that can only be used by one organization. The goal of a VPN is to provide the organization with the same capabilities, but at a much lower cost. A VPN works by using the shared public infrastructure while maintaining privacy through security procedures and tunneling protocols such as the Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP). In effect, the protocols, by encrypting data at the sending end and decrypting it at the receiving end, send the data through a tunnel that cannot be entered by data that is not properly encrypted. An additional level of security involves encrypting not only the data, but also the originating and receiving network addresses.
Q114. James is a Service Provider. He offers packaged software for lease through the Internet. Which of the following categories of service providers does he belong to?
A. ASP
B. ISP
C. BSP
D. WSP
Answer: A
Explanation: An ASP (Application Service Provider) offers packaged software for high-end applications such as databases, Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP), etc. This software can be used by small and medium organizations. Answer: B is incorrect. An Internet Service Provider (ISP) is a service provider that provides individuals and companies access to the Internet and other related services, such as Web site building and virtual hosting. It enables users to access the Internet by providing dial-up connections, DSL, cable or leased lines. An ISP has the equipment and the telecommunication line access required to have a point-of-presence on the Internet for the geographic area served. Answer: C is incorrect. BSP (Business Service Provider) is an Internet service developer who loads his proprietary applications on the WeB, Charges his customers for using the applications. This software contains some special functionality that is related to a business. A BSP can also provide a combination of Web-based software with the additional support of outsourced human administrative services. Answer: D is incorrect. WSP (Wholesale Service Provider) selects software packages of Business Service Providers and distributes them on the Web.
Q115. Which of the following is a project management tool that is characterized by circles connected by lines to indicate the sequence of event?
A. PERT Diagram
B. Gantt Chart
C. Venn Diagram
D. Critical Path
Answer: A
Explanation: A PERT Diagram is a diagram which represent the steps or component parts of a project as circles connected by lines to indicated the sequence of events. Answer: C is incorrect. Venn Diagram is incorrect as this diagram is diagram used in mathematics that are used to show all possible logical relations between a finite collection of sets. Answer: D is incorrect. Critical path is incorrect as this is not a diagram, however, it is a tool used to indicate the overall time frame a project should take to complete. Answer: B is incorrect. Gantt Chart is incorrect as this is a table that contains horizontal time lines and vertical indicators of project components,with bars indicating when and by whom tasks are to be completed.
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Q116. You are the newly hired privacy officer for a dermatology practice. Your first step in fulfilling HIPAA is also the first thing you will need to do to acclimatize yourself to your job. familiarize yourself with the environment under your auspices. You know that you have to perform a "risk assessment" under HIPAA . What would you be looking for?
A. Assess the risks to the practice's finances in maintaining an EPHI system
B. Assess the risks to patients and the practice if EPHI were violated or exposed
C. Assess the risks to the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the EPHI there
D. Assess the risks to the physical safeguards that protect EPHI
Answer: C
Explanation: Assess the risks to the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the EPHI there. HIPAA requires that every covered entity performs a "risk assessment" to identify in detail all potential weak points or points of vulnerability within the practice as it relates to EPHI. This forms the basis for developing policies and procedures to manage these risks in such ways as to reduce the likelihood of privacy rule violations. Answer: B is incorrect. While it is important to understand the risks that a particular practice's EPHI leaks can pose compare the risks at an HIV testing clinic versus an optical shop in an ophthalmology practice this does not count as a HIPAA-defined "risk assessment." Answer: A is incorrect. While this may be important for the financial leg of the practice to know, and may even require input on the part of a Privacy Officer, it is not a HIPAA "risk assessment." Answer: D is incorrect. This is only part of a risk assessment, but it doesn't address all the other aspects, such as administrative, staff training, placement of screens, policies, etc. that could affect the "confidentiality, integrity and availability" of EPHI. In fact, it is usually the physical safeguards that help ameliorate risk, but only in as much as they can. A physical safeguard for example doesn't protect a covered entity from a violation at business associate's office.
Q117. Which of the following methods of filing is best suited for limited space, medium volume facilities with multiple file clerks?
A. Compressible Units with Open Files
B. Motorized Revolving Files
C. Filing Cabinets with Drawers
D. Open Shelf Files
Answer: A
Explanation: The best filing option for limited space, medium volume facilities with multiple file clerks is compressible units with open files. This method allows for easy access and saves space, but access may be vulnerable to a mechanical failure. Answer: C is incorrect. Filing cabinets with drawers is incorrect as this method for small, low volume facilities is filing cabinets with drawers. This type of filing allows for patient records to be locked, fireproofed and protected from the environment, however, this method required significant space. Answer: D is incorrect. Open shelf files is incorrect as this method is best for high volume facilities with multiple filing staff to provide security. This option also requires significant floor space. Answer: B is incorrect. Motorized revolving files is best for limited space, low volume facilities with one file clerk. This option allows for patient records to be covered and locked but is expensive to acquire and maintain.
Q118. While working a healthcare facility, you notice a patient's EHR does not contain any electronic signatures verifying the contents of the EHR. This EHR does not meet compliance standards set forth by which of the following titles?
A. Title 21 CFR Part 11
B. Title 21 CFR Part 7
C. Title 21 CFR Part 21
Answer: A
Explanation: Part 11 as it is commonly called, defines the criteria under which electronic records and electronic signatures are considered to be trustworthy, reliable and equivalent to paper records. Part 11 requires, drug makers, medical device manufactures , biotech companies, biologics developers, and other FDA-regulated industries, with some specific exceptions, to implement controls, including audits, system validations, audit trails, electronic signatures, and documentation for software and systems involved in processing electronic data. Answer: B is incorrect. Title 21 CFR Part 7 is incorrect as this part refers to enforcement policies regarding recalls of food, drugs or cosmetics. Answer: C is incorrect. Title 21 CFR Part 20 is incorrect as this part refers to information that may or not be shared with the general public. Answer: is incorrect. Title 21 CFR Part 21 is incorrect as this part refers to records about individuals that are maintained, collected, used, or disclosed by the Food and Drug Administration and contained in Privacy Act Record Systems.
Q119. Which of the following pieces of legislation requires health care facilities to provide emergency care regardless of ability to pay?
A. MIPPA
B. EMTALA
C. Patient Bill of Rights
D. HIPPA
Answer: B
Explanation: The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) is the piece of legislation legally obligates health care facilities to provide emergent care regardless of citizenship, legal status or ability to pay. Answer: D is incorrect. HIPPA is incorrect as this legislation is designed to insure the privacy and security of personal health information.
Q120. You are the responsible for the medical records of a high profile, well known, adult patient. Which of the following do not require a disclosure of information form in order for medical records be released?
A. News Media
B. Patient's Attorney
C. Physician other than Primary Care Physician
D. Patient's Parents
Answer: A
Explanation: It is not required, but is generally discouraged, for a disclosure of patient information form to be signed in order for a health care facility to release health information to the news media. This is true even thought the patient's privacy may be compromised with release of patient health information that is of public interest and right to know. Answer: B is incorrect. It is required by law for a disclosure of patient information to be signed in order for protected health information to be released to the patient's attorney. Answer: D is incorrect. It is required by law for a disclosure of patient information to be signed in order for protected health information to be released to the parents of an adult child. Answer: C is incorrect. It is required by law for a disclosure of patient information to be signed in order for protected health information to be released to another physician.