Proper study guides for Down to date CompTIA CompTIA Security+ Certification certified begins with CompTIA sy0 401 braindump preparation products which designed to deliver the 100% Guarantee comptia security+ sy0 401 questions by making you pass the sy0 401 vce test at your first time. Try the free security+ sy0 401 demo right now.
Q81. ON NO: 50
The Human Resources department has a parent shared folder setup on the server. There are two groups that have access, one called managers and one called staff. There are many sub folders under the parent shared folder, one is called payroll. The parent folder access control list propagates all subfolders and all subfolders inherit the parent permission. Which of the following is the quickest way to prevent the staff group from gaining access to the payroll folder?
A. Remove the staff group from the payroll folder
B. Implicit deny on the payroll folder for the staff group
C. Implicit deny on the payroll folder for the managers group
D. Remove inheritance from the payroll folder
Answer: B
Explanation: Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren’t specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you’re denied access by default.
Q82. A security technician would like to obscure sensitive data within a file so that it can be transferred without causing suspicion. Which of the following technologies would BEST be suited to accomplish this?
A. Transport Encryption
B. Stream Encryption
C. Digital Signature
D. Steganography
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q83. One of the most consistently reported software security vulnerabilities that leads to major exploits is:
A. Lack of malware detection.
B. Attack surface decrease.
C. Inadequate network hardening.
D. Poor input validation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
D: With coding there are standards that should be observed. Of these standards the most fundamental is input validation. Attacks such as SQL injection depend on unfiltered input being sent through a web application. This makes for a software vulnerability that can be exploited. There are two primary ways to do input validation: client-side validation and server-side validation. Thus with poor input validation you increase your risk with regard to exposure to major software exploits.
Q84. Account lockout is a mitigation strategy used by Jane, the administrator, to combat which of the following attacks? (Select TWO).
A. Spoofing
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. Dictionary
D. Brute force
E. Privilege escalation
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Account lockout is a useful method for slowing down online password-guessing attacks. A dictionary attack performs password guessing by making use of a pre-existing list of likely passwords. A brute-force attack is intended to try every possible valid combination of characters to create possible passwords in the attempt to discover the specific passwords used by user accounts.
Q85. Which of the following is BEST utilized to actively test security controls on a particular system?
A. Port scanning
B. Penetration test
C. Vulnerability scanning
D. Grey/Gray box
Answer: B
Explanation:
Penetration testing is the most intrusive type of testing because you are actively trying to circumvent the system’s security controls to gain access to the system. Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Pen tests can be automated with software applications or they can be performed manually. Either way, the process includes gathering information about the target before the test (reconnaissance), identifying possible entry points, attempting to break in (either virtually or for real) and reporting back the findings. The main objective of penetration testing is to determine security weaknesses. A pen test can also be used to test an organization's security policy compliance, its employees' security awareness and the organization's ability to identify and respond to security incidents. Penetration tests are sometimes called white hat attacks because in a pen test, the good guys are attempting to break in.
Pen test strategies include:
Targeted testing Targeted testing is performed by the organization's IT team and the penetration testing team working together. It's sometimes referred to as a "lights-turned-on" approach because everyone can see the test being carried out.
External testing This type of pen test targets a company's externally visible servers or devices including domain name servers (DNS), e-mail servers, Web servers or firewalls. The objective is to find out if an outside attacker can get in and how far they can get in once they've gained access.
Internal testing This test mimics an inside attack behind the firewall by an authorized user with standard access privileges. This kind of test is useful for estimating how much damage a disgruntled employee could cause.
Blind testing A blind test strategy simulates the actions and procedures of a real attacker by severely limiting the information given to the person or team that's performing the test beforehand. Typically, they may only be given the name of the company. Because this type of test can require a considerable amount of time for reconnaissance, it can be expensive.
Double blind testing Double blind testing takes the blind test and carries it a step further. In this type of pen test, only one or two people within the organization might be aware a test is being conducted. Double-blind tests can be useful for testing an organization's security monitoring and incident identification as well as its response procedures.
Q86. Which of the following types of trust models is used by a PKI?
A. Transitive
B. Open source
C. Decentralized
D. Centralized
Answer: D
Explanation:
PKI uses a centralized trust model. In a simple PKI a single centralized certification authority (CA).
In a hierarchical trust model the root CA is the center of the model, with subordinate CAs lower in
the hierarchy.
Note: A public key infrastructure (PKI) is a set of hardware, software, people, policies, and
procedures needed to create, manage, distribute, use, store, and revoke digital certificates.
A trust Model is collection of rules that informs application on how to decide the legitimacy of a
Digital Certificate.
Topic 7
Q87. In which of the following steps of incident response does a team analyse the incident and determine steps to prevent a future occurrence?
A. Mitigation
B. Identification
C. Preparation
D. Lessons learned
Answer: D
Explanation:
Incident response procedures involves in chronological order: Preparation; Incident identification; Escalation and notification; Mitigation steps; Lessons learned; Reporting; Recover/reconstitution procedures; First responder; Incident isolation (Quarantine; Device removal); Data breach; Damage and loss control. Thus lessons are only learned after the mitigation occurred. For only then can you ‘step back’ and analyze the incident to prevent the same occurrence in future.
Q88. A security administrator must implement all requirements in the following corporate policy: Passwords shall be protected against offline password brute force attacks. Passwords shall be protected against online password brute force attacks. Which of the following technical controls must be implemented to enforce the corporate policy? (Select THREE).
A. Account lockout
B. Account expiration
C. Screen locks
D. Password complexity
E. Minimum password lifetime
F. Minimum password length
Answer: A,D,F
Explanation:
A brute force attack is a trial-and-error method used to obtain information such as a user password or personal identification number (PIN). In a brute force attack, automated software is used to generate a large number of consecutive guesses as to the value of the desired data. Brute force attacks may be used by criminals to crack encrypted data, or by security analysts to test an organization's network security. A brute force attack may also be referred to as brute force cracking. For example, a form of brute force attack known as a dictionary attack might try all the words in a dictionary. Other forms of brute force attack might try commonly-used passwords or combinations of letters and numbers.
The best defense against brute force attacks strong passwords. The following password policies will ensure that users have strong (difficult to guess) passwords:
F: Minimum password length. This policy specifies the minimum number of characters a password should have. For example: a minimum password length of 8 characters is regarded as good security practice.
D: Password complexity determines what characters a password should include. For example, you could require a password to contain uppercase and lowercase letters and numbers. This will ensure that passwords don’t consist of dictionary words which are easy to crack using brute force techniques.
A: Account lockout policy: This policy ensures that a user account is locked after a number of incorrect password entries. For example, you could specify that if a wrong password is entered three times, the account will be locked for a period of time or indefinitely until the account is unlocked by an administrator.
Q89. Which of the following is an attack vector that can cause extensive physical damage to a datacenter without physical access?
A. CCTV system access
B. Dial-up access
C. Changing environmental controls
D. Ping of death
Answer: C
Explanation:
Environmental systems include heating, air conditioning, humidity control, fire suppression, and power systems. All of these functions are critical to a well-designed physical plant. A computer room will typically require full-time environmental control. Changing any of these controls (when it was set to its optimum values) will result in damage.
Q90. A security administrator is reviewing the company’s continuity plan. The plan specifies an RTO of six hours and RPO of two days. Which of the following is the plan describing?
A. Systems should be restored within six hours and no later than two days after the incident.
B. Systems should be restored within two days and should remain operational for at least six hours.
C. Systems should be restored within six hours with a minimum of two days worth of data.
D. Systems should be restored within two days with a minimum of six hours worth of data.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The recovery time objective (RTO) is the maximum amount of time that a process or service is allowed to be down and the consequences still to be considered acceptable. Beyond this time, the break in business continuity is considered to affect the business negatively. The RTO is agreed on during the business impact analysis (BIA) creation.
The recovery point objective (RPO) is similar to RTO, but it defines the point at which the system needs to be restored. This could be where the system was two days before it crashed (whip out the old backup tapes) or five minutes before it crashed (requiring complete redundancy). As a general rule, the closer the RPO matches the item of the crash, the more expensive it is to obtain.