Exam Code: SY0-401 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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2021 Dec SY0-401 practice question
Q291. Sara, a security administrator, is noticing a slow down in the wireless network response. Sara launches a wireless sniffer and sees a large number of ARP packets being sent to the AP. Which of the following type of attacks is underway?
A. IV attack
B. Interference
C. Blue jacking
D. Packet sniffing
Answer: A
Explanation:
In this question, it’s likely that someone it trying to crack the wireless network security. An initialization vector is a random number used in combination with a secret key as a means to encrypt data. This number is sometimes referred to as a nonce, or “number occurring once,” as an encryption program uses it only once per session. An initialization vector is used to avoid repetition during the data encryption process, making it impossible for hackers who use dictionary attack to decrypt the exchanged encrypted message by discovering a pattern. This is known as an IV attack. A particular binary sequence may be repeated more than once in a message, and the more it appears, the more the encryption method is discoverable. For example if a one-letter word exists in a message, it may be either “a” or “I” but it can’t be “e” because the word “e” is non-sensical in English, while “a” has a meaning and “I” has a meaning. Repeating the words and letters makes it possible for software to apply a dictionary and discover the binary sequence corresponding to each letter. Using an initialization vector changes the binary sequence corresponding to each letter, enabling the letter “a” to be represented by a particular sequence in the first instance, and then represented by a completely different binary sequence in the second instance.
WEP (Wireless Equivalent Privacy) is vulnerable to an IV attack. Because RC4 is a stream cipher, the same traffic key must never be used twice. The purpose of an IV, which is transmitted as plain text, is to prevent any repetition, but a 24-bit IV is not long enough to ensure this on a busy network. The way the IV was used also opened WEP to a related key attack. For a 24-bit IV, there is a 50% probability the same IV will repeat after 5000 packets.
Q292. HOTSPOT
For each of the given items, select the appropriate authentication category from the dropdown choices.
Instructions: When you have completed the simu-lation, please select the Done button to submit.
Answer:
Q293. A security administrator is tackling issues related to authenticating users at a remote site. There have been a large number of security incidents that resulted from either tailgating or impersonation of authorized users with valid credentials. The security administrator has been told to implement multifactor authentication in order to control facility access. To secure access to the remote facility, which of the following could be implemented without increasing the amount of space required at the entrance?
A. MOTD challenge and PIN pad
B. Retina scanner and fingerprint reader
C. Voice recognition and one-time PIN token
D. One-time PIN token and proximity reader
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q294. Which of the following software allows a network administrator to inspect the protocol header in order to troubleshoot network issues?
A. URL filter
B. Spam filter
C. Packet sniffer
D. Switch
Answer: C
Explanation:
Every data packet transmitted across a network has a protocol header. To view a protocol header, you need to capture and view the contents of the packet with a packet sniffer.
A sniffer (packet sniffer) is a tool that intercepts data flowing in a network. If computers are connected to a local area network that is not filtered or switched, the traffic can be broadcast to all computers contained in the same segment. This doesn’t generally occur, since computers are generally told to ignore all the comings and goings of traffic from other computers. However, in the case of a sniffer, all traffic is shared when the sniffer software commands the Network Interface Card (NIC) to stop ignoring the traffic. The NIC is put into promiscuous mode, and it reads communications between computers within a particular segment. This allows the sniffer to seize everything that is flowing in the network, which can lead to the unauthorized access of sensitive data. A packet sniffer can take the form of either a hardware or software solution. A sniffer is also known as a packet analyzer.
Q295. An organization does not want the wireless network name to be easily discovered. Which of the following software features should be configured on the access points?
A. SSID broadcast
B. MAC filter
C. WPA2
D. Antenna placement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Numerous networks broadcast their name (known as an SSID broadcast) to reveal their presence.
Up to the immediate present SY0-401 testing engine:
Q296. A security analyst, Ann, is reviewing an IRC channel and notices that a malicious exploit has been created for a frequently used application. She notifies the software vendor and asks them for remediation steps, but is alarmed to find that no patches are available to mitigate this vulnerability.
Which of the following BEST describes this exploit?
A. Malicious insider threat
B. Zero-day
C. Client-side attack
D. Malicious add-on
Answer: B
Explanation:
A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it—this exploit is called a zero day attack. Uses of zero day attacks can include infiltrating malware, spyware or allowing unwanted access to user information. The term “zero day” refers to the unknown nature of the hole to those outside of the hackers, specifically, the developers. Once the vulnerability becomes known, a race begins for the developer, who must protect users. In this question, there are no patches are available to mitigate the vulnerability. This is therefore a zero-day vulnerability.
Q297. Which of the following is BEST utilized to identify common misconfigurations throughout the enterprise?
A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Port scanning
C. Penetration testing
D. Black box
Answer: A
Explanation:
A vulnerability scan is the process of scanning the network and/or I.T. infrastructure for threats and vulnerabilities. The threats and vulnerabilities are then evaluated in a risk assessment and the necessary actions taken to resolve and vulnerabilities. A vulnerability scan scans for known weaknesses such as missing patches or security updates.
A vulnerability scan is the automated process of proactively identifying security vulnerabilities of computing systems in a network in order to determine if and where a system can be exploited and/or threatened. While public servers are important for communication and data transfer over the Internet, they open the door to potential security breaches by threat agents, such as malicious hackers. Vulnerability scanning employs software that seeks out security flaws based on a database of known flaws, testing systems for the occurrence of these flaws and generating a report of the findings that an individual or an enterprise can use to tighten the network's security.
Q298. An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the following would be the BEST place to start?
A. Review past security incidents and their resolution
B. Rewrite the existing security policy
C. Implement an intrusion prevention system
D. Install honey pot systems
Answer: C
Explanation:
The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it
Q299. The IT department has setup a share point site to be used on the intranet. Security has established the groups and permissions on the site. No one may modify the permissions and all requests for access are centrally managed by the security team. This is an example of which of the following control types?
A. Rule based access control
B. Mandatory access control
C. User assigned privilege
D. Discretionary access control
Answer: D
Explanation:
Discretionary access control (DAC) allows access to be granted or restricted by an object’s owner based on user identity and on the discretion of the object owner.
Q300. A merchant acquirer has the need to store credit card numbers in a transactional database in a high performance environment. Which of the following BEST protects the credit card data?
A. Database field encryption
B. File-level encryption
C. Data loss prevention system
D. Full disk encryption
Answer: A
Explanation:
Database encryption makes use of cryptography functions that are built into the database software to encrypt the data stored in the data base. This often offers granular encryption options which allows for the encryptions of the entire database, specific database tables, or specific database fields, such as a credit card number field.