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NEW QUESTION 1

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

  • A. Compromising
  • B. Collaborating
  • C. Smoothing
  • D. Problem Solving

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2

A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

  • A. mitigate
  • B. accept
  • C. transfer
  • D. avoid

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

  • A. Functional managers and manager of project managers
  • B. Functional managers only
  • C. Project managers only
  • D. Technical managers and project managers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

  • A. risk data quality assessment.
  • B. variance and trend analysis.
  • C. data gathering and representation techniques.
  • D. risk audit

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5

A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:

  • A. Project
  • B. Plan
  • C. Program
  • D. Portfolio

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

  • A. Acceptance of deliverables
  • B. Change requests
  • C. Project management plan updates
  • D. Benchmarking

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

  • A. Expert judgment
  • B. Project management methodology
  • C. Project management information system (PMIS)
  • D. Project selection methods

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8

In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:

  • A. enterprise environmental factors.
  • B. organizational process assets.
  • C. project management plan,
  • D. project funding requirement

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9

Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

  • A. Plan Risk Management
  • B. Plan Risk Responses
  • C. Identify Risks
  • D. Control Risks

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10

When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?

  • A. At project initiation
  • B. During work performance analysis
  • C. Throughout the life of the project
  • D. At project milestones

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 11

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

  • A. Organizational chart
  • B. Organizational theory
  • C. Organizational structure
  • D. Organizational behavior

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12

Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?

  • A. Control charts
  • B. Pareto diagrams
  • C. Ishikavva diagrams
  • D. Checksheets

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13

Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?

  • A. Smooth/accommodate
  • B. Withdraw/avoid
  • C. Compromise/reconcile
  • D. Force/direct

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14

Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:

  • A. Enterprise environmental factors
  • B. Work performance reports
  • C. Organizational process assets
  • D. Context diagrams

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 15

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

  • A. expert judgment and change requests.
  • B. work performance information and change requests.
  • C. organizational process asset updates and an issue log.
  • D. project management plan updates and an issue lo

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 16

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

  • A. Configuration management plan
  • B. Scope baseline
  • C. Requirements management plan
  • D. Schedule baseline

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 17

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

  • A. operate separately.
  • B. move together in batches,
  • C. overlap and interact.
  • D. move in a sequenc

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 18

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

  • A. Define Activities
  • B. Direct and Manage Project Work
  • C. Develop Project Management Plan
  • D. Develop Project Charter

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 19

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

  • A. Schedule management plan
  • B. Project management plan
  • C. Quality management plan
  • D. Resource management plan

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 20

Typical outcomes of a project include:

  • A. Products, services, and improvements.
  • B. Products, programs, and services.
  • C. Improvements, portfolios, and services.
  • D. Improvements, processes, and product

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 21

A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?

  • A. Efficient
  • B. Effective
  • C. Push
  • D. Pull

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 22

Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

  • A. Monitoring and Controlling
  • B. Initiating
  • C. Planning
  • D. Executing

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 23
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