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2021 Nov HIT-001 exam answers
Q101. Health plans and government programs may not always agree to pay for certain services. Medicare will not pay for services unless it believes them to be "reasonable and necessary". Medicare guidelines state that a patient must be notified in writing that Medicare may deny payment for a particular service, as well as the reason for the likely denial, before service is performed. What is the name of this document?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Waiver of liability
B. Advanced Beneficiary Notice
C. Intent to Inform
D. Payment Responsibility
Answer: AB
Explanation: A waiver of liability is a waiver of financial liability (Medicare may not be responsible to pay, and the patient will be responsible to pay the healthcare provider). Another name for this within the Medicare bureaucracy is an Advanced Beneficiary Notice, as the document is a notice to Medicare beneficiaries, given before service, that the service may not be paid for by Medicare. Answer: C is incorrect. This is not an accurate name for this document. Answer: D is incorrect. Although the content of the waiver does include the fact that the patient may be responsible for payment, the document is rarely referred to by this name.
Q102. Which of the following work divisions is characterized by each person having a sequential step in the final product?
A. Parallel
B. Unilateral
C. Unit Assembly
D. Serial
Answer: D
Explanation: A serial work division is characterized by each person performing a unique, sequential step in the final product. Answer: A is incorrect. Parallel is incorrect as this is a type of work division that is characterized by each person performing several tasks. Answer: C is incorrect. Unit assembly is incorrect as this is a type of work division in which each person performs a unique task, however, it may not be sequential. Answer: B is incorrect. Unilateral is incorrect as this is not a type of work division, this is meant as a distractor.
Q103. Which of the following operations does an access point perform in the wireless network? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It provides real-time quality information to the controller.
B. It re-associates the roaming clients.
C. It transmits beacon frames.
D. It monitors all the channels for noise and interference.
Answer: ACD
Explanation: An AP performs the following operations: It exchanges the frames and implements handshake between the clients. It transmits beacon frames. It buffers and transmits the frames for clients who are working in the power-save mode. It sends responses to probe requests from different clients on the network. It forwards notifications of received probe requests to the controller. It provides real-time quality information to the controller. It monitors all the channels for noise and interference. Answer: B is incorrect. An access point cannot re-associate the roaming clients.
Q104. Your responsibility as a healthcare information technologist is to ensure the proper functioning of voice recognition for medical transcription and proper functioning of bar coding applications for medical devices. Which of the following types of information technology are you responsible for?
A. Clinical IT
B. Financial IT
C. Administrative IT
D. Infrastructure IT
Answer: D
Explanation: Applications of infrastructure information technology support the infrastructure of the health care facility. These applications include voice recognition for medical records and medical transcription as well as bar coding applications for medical devices and drugs. Answer: C is incorrect. Administrative IT is incorrect as these applications are used to make staff scheduling, patient registration and payroll procedures more efficient. Answer: A is incorrect. Clinical IT is incorrect as these applications are used for prescription of drugs and ordering of laboratory tests and medical procedures Answer: B is incorrect. Financial IT is incorrect as these applications are used to improve the efficiency of billing and accounting practices.
Q105. Which of the following techniques includes grinding and shredding of documents by physically breaking CD-ROMs?
A. Degaussing
B. Data Loss Prevention
C. Destruction
D. Record retention
Answer: C
Explanation: Destruction of data storage medium is considered as the most convinced way for responding the data remanence. However, this process is time-consuming and difficult to manage. Some specific destruction techniques are as follows: Grinding and shredding Incinerating Phase transition Application of corrosive chemicals Raising the temperature of media above the Curie point Application of extremely high voltage for electric volatile and non-volatile storage mediums Answer: A is incorrect. Degaussing is a process in which the magnetic field of a disk or drive is removed. When degaussing occurs on a magnetic media, it removes an entire media element quickly and effectively. A device has been designed for this process, called the degausser. Degaussing makes the disk or drive inoperable by performing low-level formatting. It is only done at the factory during manufacturing. To make the drive or disk functional, return it to the manufacturer for servicing. A degaussed disk can generally be reformatted and reused with standard consumer hardware. Answer: D is incorrect. Record retention refers to a time period that is required for maintaining a record in order to meet the goals and fulfill legal and administrative requirements of the university and external agencies. Answer: B is incorrect. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is a technology that reduces the risk of data loss even when the data is in use, in motion, or at rest. It identifies, monitors, and protects data through deep content inspection, contextual security analysis of transaction, and with a centralized management framework. DLP detects and prevents the unauthorized use and transmission of confidential information.
Updated HIT-001 exam topics:
Q106. The HIPAA act prevents disclosure of health information to which of the following?
A. The Patient
B. Patient Representatives
C. Department of Health and Human Services
D. Patient Employer
Answer: D
Explanation: HIPAA act does not allow a patient's health information to be disclosed to a patients employer. Answer: A is incorrect. The Patient is incorrect as the patient has a right to know any and all information pertinent to his/her medical care. Answer: B is incorrect. Patient representatives is incorrect as health information can be disclosed to anyone a patient designates to represent them such as a family member or attorney. Answer: C is incorrect. Department of Health and Human Services is incorrect as patient information may be disclosed to the Department of Health and Human Services when it is conducting a compliance investigation or review or enforcement action.
Q107. Which of the following devices is useful where there are multiple computers but no need for a dedicated keyboard, monitor, and mouse for each one?
A. Inverter
B. KVM switch
C. Switch
D. USB hub
Answer: B
Explanation: A KVM switch is useful where there are multiple computers but no need for a dedicated keyboard, monitor, and mouse for each one. A KVM switch is a hardware device that allows a user to control multiple computers from a single keyboard, video monitor and mouse. Although multiple computers are connected to the KVM, typically a smaller number of computers can be controlled at any given time. A user connects a monitor, keyboard, and mouse to the KVM switch, then uses special cables (generally USB and VGA ) to connect the KVM device to the computers. Control is switched from one computer to another by the use of a switch or buttons on the KVM device, with the KVM passing the signals between the computers and the keyboard, mouse and monitor depending on which computer is currently selected. Answer: D is incorrect. A USB hub is a device that allows many USB devices to be connected to a single USB port on a host computer or another hub. USB hubs are sometimes built into equipment, such as keyboards, monitors, printers, or computers. When a computer has several USB ports they all usually stem from one or two internal USB hubs rather than each port having independent USB hardware. Answer: A is incorrect. An inverter is an electrical device that converts direct current (DC) to alternating current (AC). The resulting AC can be at any required voltage and frequency with the use of appropriate transformers, switching, and control circuits. Static inverters have no moving parts and are used in a wide range of applications, from small switching power supplies in computers, to large electric utility high-voltage direct current applications that transport bulk power. Inverters are commonly used to supply AC power from DC sources such as solar panels or batteries. Answer: C is incorrect. A switch is a network connectivity device that brings media segments together in a central location. It reads the destination's MAC address or hardware address from each incoming data packet and forwards the data packet to its destination. This reduces the network traffic. Switches operate at the data-link layer of the OSI model.
Q108. You are asked to reduce medical records for a dental practice, you can eliminate all records that are older than which of the following?
A. 10 years
B. 6 years
C. 30 years
D. 4 years
Answer: D
Explanation: All primary dental records must be retained for a period of at least 4 years from the date of the patient's last episode of care. Answer: B is incorrect. 6 years is incorrect as this is the amount of time in which all materials containing HIPAA information must be kept. Answer: A is incorrect. 10 years is incorrect as this is the amount of time all primary medical records must be retained. Answer: C is incorrect. 30 years is incorrect as no medical information is required to be retained for 30 years.
Q109. Which of the following is defined as the patient's right to control disclosure of his or her personal information?
A. Confidentiality
B. Conformity
C. Privacy
D. Data Security
Answer: C
Explanation: Privacy is defined as the individual's right to control disclosure of his or her personal information. Answer: A is incorrect. Confidentiality is incorrect as this is defined as the legal and ethical obligation of health care professionals to meet the expectation of privacy from patients. Answer: D is incorrect. Data security is incorrect as this is defined as technical and procedural methods to control and manage confidential information. Answer: B is incorrect. Conformity is defined as an individual adapting their behaviors, thoughts and attitudes to match what are perceived as normal by society. This answer choice is simply meant as a distractor.
Q110. You are responsible for applying the appropriate ICD-9 code for all services obtained for patients at your facility. Which of the following types of data are you responsible for?
A. Numbers
B. Text
C. Images
D. Signals
Answer: A
Explanation: Numeric data is a type of data that may be found in a patient's electronic health record. Examples of numerical data would be ICD-9 codes, blood pressure readings, body weight and temperature readings.