Exam Code: HIT-001 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Healthcare IT Technician Exam
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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Q271. Sam works as a System Administrator for ABC Inc. The company has Windows-based network. Sam wants to remove the files from the system, permanently. For this purpose, he uses the shredding process. Which of the following statements are related to the shredding? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The content of the file can be overwritten in the process of shredding.
B. It is a program that is used for the purpose of rewriting the files with random series of binary data several times.
C. It is used for the combustion of organic substances that are contained in waste material.
D. The process of recovering such a shredded file is usually theoretical.
Answer: ABD
Explanation: Shredding can be defined as the program that is used for the purpose of rewriting the files several times with the random series of binary data. It is capable of removing the files from the system, permanently. In the process of shredding, the content of the file can be overwritten. The process of recovering such a shredded file is usually theoretical. Answer: C is incorrect. Incinerating is used for the combustion of organic substances that are contained in waste material.
Q272. Which of the following statements are true regarding the security advantages of cloud computing?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It has advanced honeypot capabilities.
B. It provides a greater resiliency.
C. It can be implemented without any organizational changes.
D. It provides fault tolerance and reliability.
Answer: ABD
Explanation: The security advantages for cloud computing are as follows: It provides data fragmentation and dispersal. It builds a dedicated security team. It has a greater investment in security infrastructure. It provides fault tolerance and reliability. It provides a greater resiliency. It provides hypervisor protection against network attacks. It offers possible reduction of Certification and Accreditation activities. It provides simplification of compliance analysis. An unbiased party holds the data. It has low-cost disaster recovery and data storage solutions. It provides on-demand security controls. It provides real-time detection of system tampering. It provides rapid re-constitution of services. It has advanced honeypot capabilities. Answer: C is incorrect. Organizational changes are needed to implement cloud computing.
Q273. Which of the following titles of HIPAA protects health insurance coverage for workers and their families when they change or lose their jobs?
A. Title I
B. Title II
C. Title III
D. Title IV
Answer: A
Explanation: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 was enacted by the U.S. Congress in 1996. According to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) Website, Title I of HIPAA protects health insurance coverage for workers and their families when they change or lose their jobs. Title II of HIPAA, known as the Administrative Simplification (AS) provisions, requires the establishment of national standards for electronic health care transactions and national identifiers for providers, health insurance plans, and employers. This is intended to help people keep their information private, though in practice it is normal for providers and health insurance plans to require the waiver of HIPAA rights as a condition of service. The Administration Simplification provisions also address the security and privacy of health data. The standards are meant to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the nation's health care system by encouraging the widespread use of electronic data interchange in the U.S. health care system. Answer: C, D are incorrect. These are not the valid titles of HIPAA.
Q274. You have been hired to create a software program that will remove all the identifying information from patient records who were involved in a cancer research project, so that the outcomes of a particular treatment can be shared at a medical conference. HIPAA requires that you remove many types of information that could be used to identify the patient or could, in conjunction with other information that the receiver has, be used to identify the patient. Which information below would you NOT be required to remove.
A. Health plan beneficiary numbers
B. Web addresses
C. Fax numbers
D. Birth year if the patient(s) is under the age of 89
Answer: D
Explanation: Year information must only be deleted if patients are over the age of 90; however they can be aggregated into a single category "90 or older."
Q275. Which of the following data types encompassed in a patient's EHR would include body weight and temperature readings?
A. Signals
B. Images
C. Text
D. Numbers
Answer: D
Explanation: Numeric data is a type of data that may be found in a patient's electronic health record. Examples of numerical data would be blood pressure readings, body weight and temperature readings.
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Q276. A visiting IT professional is at an OBGYN practice and has been granted access to the computer system, but not the practice's paper records it's previous system of charting for patients. It's after standard work hours the IT professional is working late. He knows an ex-girlfriend used to be a patient at the practice and decides he wants to see her charts, since he can't find her in the computer. What simple Physical Safeguard would help fulfill HIPAA by protecting against the IT professional from accessing the practice's PHI?
A. The paper records are in locked the mobile charting cabinets in the check-in area.
B. The paper records are color coded.
C. The paper records are locked in storage room.
D. The paper records are kept in a series of drawers only known to the Privacy Officer.
Answer: C
Explanation: Under HIPAA, records must be in secure, locked storage when not in use. Option A is incorrect, because although the charts are locked, they are not secure. The cabinets could be moved out of the practice potentially, allowing for criminal break-in's off the premises. They must be secure and locked under HIPAA's rule. Option D is not a requirement of HIPAA and the records in this situation are neither locked nor secure. A determined person could find these drawers. Option B is incorrect. Color-coding usually has much more to do with the types of patients, but provides no protection against PHI theft.
Q277. A patient has had a two month extended stay in the hospital. Over that period of time, her chart has become too large and cumbersome to handle. You are asked to make this chart easier to work with. Which of the following tasks have you been asked to perform?
A. Scanning
B. Coding
C. Archiving
D. Thinning
Answer: D
Explanation: The purpose of thinning is to make a patients chart easier to handle after it has become to large and cumbersome to handle. This act is normally necessary for a patient who has incurred an extended stay in the hospital. The medical records that have been thinned are not destroyed but sent to the central medical records area where they should still be readily accessible. Answer: C is incorrect. Archiving is incorrect as this act is ensuring the documents of a patient's medical record are sufficiently stored for the appropriate length of time in a private location. Answer: B is incorrect. Coding is incorrect as this is the act of applying the proper codes for medical services for billing purposes. Answer: A is incorrect. Scanning is incorrect as this is the act of converting paper medical records into computerized form.
Q278. You are asked to convert all paper medical records to a digital format. Which of the following tasks are you being asked to perform?
A. Document Imaging
B. Device Capture
C. Clinical Imaging
D. Document Archiving
Answer: A
Explanation: Document imaging involves prepping, scanning, indexing and performing quality control on paper documents that are entered into a computerized system. Answer: B is incorrect. Device capture is the act of transmitting medical information directly from a medical device such as electrocardiogram. Answer: D is incorrect. Document archiving is the act of ensuring the documents of a patient's medical record are sufficiently stored for the appropriate length of time in a private location. Answer: C is incorrect. Clinical imaging refers to medical information that is obtained by the use of photographs or other medical imaging devices that need to be a part of the patient's permanent medical record.
Q279. As the Privacy Officer at the San Francisco Community Hospital, you are working to develop the policies for non-annual, situations which should trigger a risk assessment of the hospital's EPHI systems and policies. Which of the following might you suggest?
A. Reorganization of the hospital's management or business structure
B. New awning at the hospital's entrance
C. Redevelopment of the downtown and patient base that frequents the hospital
D. Reorganization of the hospital's marketing
Answer: A
Explanation: Reorganization of the hospital's management or business structure. CMS strongly recommends this as a trigger for risk assessment because although it is not directly IT-related, the management set the procedures, training, and monitoring of staff in terms of EPHI and all related components. Therefore, even though this is primarily a business decision, the shift can have dramatic impacts on the security and protection of EPHI, particularly regarding personnel. Answer: B is incorrect. Should have absolutely no effect on EPHI. Answer: D is incorrect. Though marketing may in an extremely rare circumstance need to deal with a privacy violation that reaches the media, they don't in any direct way affect the confidentiality, availability or integrity of EPHI. It is only after a violation has occurred, that if it becomes public relations scandal that a Public Relations official, rather than a marketing employee, might need to meet with a privacy officer to discuss HIPAA rules; HIPAA sensitivity should usually be a standard part of any new public relations employee's training. Answer: C is incorrect. What happens outside the hospital, even if it means a new patient base, should not affect or put at risk EPHI. New types of patients will still have the same protections under HIPAA as previous population pool.
Q280. Which of the following commands can verify connectivity between two computers? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. NSLOOKUP
B. PING
C. IPCONFIG
D. TRACERT
Answer: BD
Explanation: TRACERT and PING commands can verify connectivity between two computers. TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote host. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address. It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Answer: C is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration, such as the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, etc. of a networked computer. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Answer: A is incorrect. NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues, verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone, and debugging other server-related problems. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel.