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2021 Jan SY0-401 test
Q181. Which of the following is a best practice for error and exception handling?
A. Log detailed exception but display generic error message
B. Display detailed exception but log generic error message
C. Log and display detailed error and exception messages
D. Do not log or display error or exception messages
Answer: A
Explanation:
A detailed explanation of the error is not helpful for most end users but might provide information that is useful to a hacker. It is therefore better to display a simple but helpful message to the end user and log the detailed information to an access-restricted log file for the administrator and programmer who would need as much information as possible about the problem in order to rectify it.
Q182. A network administrator, Joe, arrives at his new job to find that none of the users have changed their network passwords since they were initially hired. Joe wants to have everyone change their passwords immediately. Which of the following policies should be enforced to initiate a password change?
A. Password expiration
B. Password reuse
C. Password recovery
D. Password disablement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q183. A process in which the functionality of an application is tested without any knowledge of the internal mechanisms of the application is known as:
A. Black box testing
B. White box testing
C. Black hat testing
D. Gray box testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Black-box testing is a method of software testing that examines the functionality of an application without peering into its internal structures or workings. This method of test can be applied to virtually every level of software testing: unit, integration, system and acceptance. It typically comprises most if not all higher level testing, but can also dominate unit testing as well. Specific knowledge of the application's code/internal structure and programming knowledge in general is not required. The tester is aware of what the software is supposed to do but is not aware of how it does it. For instance, the tester is aware that a particular input returns a certain, invariable output but is not aware of how the software produces the output in the first place.
Q184. Which of the following will help prevent smurf attacks?
A. Allowing necessary UDP packets in and out of the network
B. Disabling directed broadcast on border routers
C. Disabling unused services on the gateway firewall
D. Flash the BIOS with the latest firmware
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q185. Which of the following types of security services are used to support authentication for remote users and devices?
A. Biometrics
B. HSM
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS
Answer: C
Explanation:
RADIUS authentication phase takes place when a network client connects to a network access server (NAS) and provides authentication credentials. The NAS will then make use of the authentication credentials to issue a RADIUS authentication request to the RADIUS server, which will then exchange RADIUS authentication messages with the NAS.
Up to the minute SY0-401 book:
Q186. A company has just deployed a centralized event log storage system. Which of the following can be used to ensure the integrity of the logs after they are collected?
A. Write-once drives
B. Database encryption
C. Continuous monitoring
D. Role-based access controls
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q187. A network inventory discovery application requires non-privileged access to all hosts on a network for inventory of installed applications. A service account is created by the network inventory discovery application for accessing all hosts. Which of the following is the MOST efficient method for granting the account non-privileged access to the hosts?
A. Implement Group Policy to add the account to the users group on the hosts
B. Add the account to the Domain Administrator group
C. Add the account to the Users group on the hosts
D. Implement Group Policy to add the account to the Power Users group on the hosts.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Group Policy is an infrastructure that allows you to implement specific configurations for users and computers. Group Policy settings are contained in Group Policy objects (GPOs), which are linked to the following Active Directory directory service containers: sites, domains, or organizational units (OUs). This means that if the GPO is linked to the domain, all Users groups in the domain will include the service account.
Q188. The security administrator at ABC company received the following log information from an external party:
10:45:01 EST, SRC 10.4.3.7:3056, DST 8.4.2.1:80, ALERT, Directory traversal
10:45:02 EST, SRC 10.4.3.7:3057, DST 8.4.2.1:80, ALERT, Account brute force
10:45:03 EST, SRC 10.4.3.7:3058, DST 8.4.2.1:80, ALERT, Port scan
The external party is reporting attacks coming from abc-company.com. Which of the following is the reason the ABC company’s security administrator is unable to determine the origin of the attack?
A. A NIDS was used in place of a NIPS.
B. The log is not in UTC.
C. The external party uses a firewall.
D. ABC company uses PAT.
Answer: D
Explanation:
PAT would ensure that computers on ABC’s LAN translate to the same IP address, but with a different port number assignment. The log information shows the IP address, not the port number, making it impossible to pin point the exact source.
Q189. A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is tasked with outsourcing the analysis of security logs. These will need to still be reviewed on a regular basis to ensure the security of the company has not been breached. Which of the following cloud service options would support this requirement?
A. SaaS
B. MaaS
C. IaaS
D. PaaS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Monitoring-as-a-service (MaaS) is a cloud delivery model that falls under anything as a service (XaaS). MaaS allows for the deployment of monitoring functionalities for several other services and applications within the cloud.
Q190. When employees that use certificates leave the company they should be added to which of the following?
A. PKI
B. CA
C. CRL
D. TKIP
Answer: C
Explanation:
The certificates of the leaving employees must be made unusable. This is done by revoking them.
The revoke certificates end up in the CRL.
Note: The CRL (Certificate revocation list) is exactly what its name implies: a list of subscribers
paired with digital certificate status. The list enumerates revoked certificates along with the
reason(s) for revocation. The dates of certificate issue, and the entities that issued them, are also
included. In addition, each list contains a proposed date for the next release.