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2021 Jan HIT-001 sample question
Q281. Which of the following statements regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act's "Security Rule" is NOT accurate?
A. The Security Rule mandates efforts to protect the security of PHI from anticipated threats and hazards, and anticipated uses and disclosures not permitted by the HIPAA Privacy rule.
B. The Security Rule only covers electronic protected health information (PHI), no other media.
C. The Security Rule mandates a series of administrative, technical and physical safeguards to protect the confidentiality, integrity and availability of protected health information.
D. The HIPAA Security Rule mandates a strict methodology for the implementation of security standards and safeguards
Answer: D
Explanation: Options A, B, C are all important components of the HIPAA Security Rule, whereas Option D is not accurate. The HIPAA Security Rule follows a principle of flexibility, allowing covered entities to develop their own methods and plans for implementing the mandated administrative, physical and technical safeguards depending upon the size, complexity and capabilities of the covered entity. Answer: B is incorrect. Option A is a factual statement. The HIPAA Security Rule and its mandates apply only to the protection of electronic protected health information (ePHI), not paper, film, or other storage media. Answer: C is incorrect. Option B is a factual statement. The key regulations of the Security Rule involve the requirements for administrative, technical and physical safeguards to protect ePHI. Answer: A is incorrect. Option C is a factual statement. It is very important for any organization dealing with the security of ePHI to think about the future of potential physical threats like nature disasters, technical threats like hacking, and anticipate the potential for uses and disclosures in lawsuits or other potentialities.
Q282. Your healthcare facility is involved in a lawsuit where protected health information is important to the case. Can your facility disclose this information and still be within HIPAA compliance?
A. No. It is not in the best interests of the healthcare organization to disclose protected health information at any time.
B. No. The organization should not disclose that information under these circumstances because it risks falling into HIPAA noncompliance.
C. Yes. The needs of the lawsuit outweigh the HIPAA law and the information should be disclosed even at the risk of HIPAA compliance.
D. Yes. The organization will still be within HIPAA compliance if it discloses PHI within a legal proceeding.
Answer: D
Explanation: Legal proceedings fall within the "operations" exception of HIPAA privacy rule as part of "TPO" - reatment, payment and operations. Therefore, PHI may be disclosed during a lawsuit, but the minimum necessary standard still applies. The amount of nformation disclosed and the persons allowed to access the information should be kept to a minimum. Answer: B is incorrect. The healthcare organization can definitely comply with any subpoenas or requests for information as part of a legal proceeding and still remain in compliance with HIPAA regulations. Answer: C is incorrect. The healthcare organization can definitely comply with any subpoena or requests for information as part of a legal proceeding and still remain in compliance with HIPAA regulations. A lawsuit does not "supersede" HIPAA or render its mandates unnecessary. Answer: A is incorrect. Healthcare organizations cannot claim HIPAA law or organizational rights allow them to not comply with a subpoena. A healthcare facility has to turn over information that is relevant to a case.
Q283. Which of the following is important for the security of users a hospital information system due to the fact the identity of the user cannot be forged?
A. Inclusion
B. Ergonomics
C. Biometrics
D. Integration
Answer: C
Explanation: Biometrics is a physical trait that is unique to humans such as fingerprints, retinal patterns and speech patterns. Biometrics is often used for security of information systems because the identity of the users cannot be forged.
Q284. One of the data fields within the HL7 specifications is for Provider Type. What does this mean?
A. It's the type of healthcare facility the patient is being seen in.
B. Specifies the major grouping of the service or occupation of the practitioner
C. It's the type of insurer providing insurance coverage for the patient.
D. Specifies the seniority level of the physician
Answer: B
Explanation: The specialty of the provider or practitioner is what is contained in the Provider Type data field, for example Behavioral and Social Services, or Neurology or Dermatology. Answer: A is incorrect. Provider in this case refers to the physician or health care professional, not the facility.
Answer: C is incorrect. Provider does not refer to the insurance entity. Answer: D is incorrect. "type" does not refer to the seniority level of the physician, but their specialty field.
Q285. You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a TCP-based network. You want to connect a new client computer to the network. You have configured the computer for receiving IP address automatically. Which of the following services is required to be running on the network?
A. DNS
B. WINS
C. DHCP
D. DHCP Relay Agent
Answer: C
Explanation: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a TCP/IP standard used to dynamically assign IP addresses to computers, so that they can communicate with other network services. It reduces the complexity of managing network client IP address configuration. A DHCP server configures DHCP-enabled client computers on the network. It runs on servers only. It also provides integration with the Active Directory directory service. Answer: A is incorrect. Domain Name System (DNS) is a hierarchical naming system used for locating domain names on private TCP/IP networks and the Internet. It provides a service for mapping DNS domain names to IP addresses and vice versa. DNS enables users to use friendly names to locate computers and other resources on an IP network. TCP/IP uses IP addresses to locate and connect to hosts, but for users, it is easier to use names instead of IP address to locate or connect to a site. For example, users will be more comfortable in using the host name www.company.com rather than using its IP address 66.111.64.227. Answer: B is incorrect. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is a name resolution service that registers and resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses used on the network. WINS is a Microsoft standard and is used only on networks comprising Windows hosts. Answer: D is incorrect. DHCP Relay Agent is used in a routed network to communicate with the DHCP server on the other segment. The relay agent relays Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) message traffic between the DHCP-enabled clients on a local physical network and a remote DHCP server located on another physical network. The DHCP Relay Agent takes DHCP messages from DHCP clients and forwards them to the IP address of DHCP servers. The responses from the DHCP servers are sent to the IP address of the DHCP Relay Agent, which then forwards them to the DHCP client.
Renewal HIT-001 exams:
Q286. According to the USB 2.0 standard, what should be the maximum cable length between devices?
A. 4.5 meters
B. 10 meters
C. 5 meters
D. 1 meter
Answer: C
Explanation: According to the USB 2.0 standard, the maximum cable length between devices should be 5 meters.
Q287. You are a healthcare IT technician. Your manager provides you a storage media having PHI data and wants you to perform low level format on it. Which form of secure disposal of PHI are you performing?
A. Sanitizing
B. Degaussing
C. Piercing
D. Shredding
Answer: B
Explanation: Degaussing is a process in which the magnetic field of a disk or drive is removed. When degaussing occurs on a magnetic media, it removes an entire media element quickly and effectively. A device has been designed for this process, called the degausser. Degaussing makes the disk or drive inoperable by performing low-level formatting. It is only done at the factory during manufacturing. To make the drive or disk functional, return it to the manufacturer for servicing. A degaussed disk can generally be reformatted and reused with standard consumer hardware. Answer: D is incorrect. Shredding can be defined as the program that is used for the purpose of rewriting the files several times with the random series of binary data. It is capable of removing the files from the system, permanently. In the process of shredding, the content of the file can be overwritten. The process of recovering such a shredded file is usually theoretical. Answer: A is incorrect. Sanitization refers to the general process of removing data from storage media, such that there is reasonable assurance that the data may not be easily retrieved and reconstructed. Answer: C is incorrect. Piercing of media is not a secure way of disposal of PHI data.
Q288. Which of the following services resolves host name to IP Address?
A. Computer Browser
B. DHCP
C. DNS
D. WINS
Answer: C
Explanation: The DNS service resolves host name to IP Address.A DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings, IP address-to-host name mappings, information about the domain tree structure, etc. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. Answer: B is incorrect. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a TCP/IP standard used to dynamically assign IP addresses to computers, so that they can communicate with other network services. It reduces the complexity of managing network client IP address configuration. A DHCP server configures DHCP-enabled client computers on the network. It runs on servers only. It also provides integration with the Active Directory directory service. Answer: D is incorrect. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is a name resolution service that registers and resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses used on the network. WINS is a Microsoft standard and is used only on networks comprising Windows hosts. Answer: A is incorrect. The Computer Browser service is used by Windows-based computers on the network. Computers designated as browsers maintain an up-to-date list of computers and provide the list to applications when requested. When a user attempts to connect to a resource in the network, the Browser service is contacted to provide a list of available resources.
Q289. You are working at a dermatology practice and integrating the electronic medical system with the patient billing system. What term would be used to discuss a system of codes used in billing for this office to explain what procedures had been performed?
A. CPT
B. PACS
C. CCD
D. CSW
Answer: A
Explanation: CPT stands for Current Procedural Terminology, a system of five digit codes and modifiers used to describe procedures performed and equipment used in an outpatient setting or for work done by physicians or other medical professionals. You would encounter programs like Encoder that would use CPT codes for billing in a dermatology practice. Answer: C is incorrect. CCD is the Continuity of Care Document, a specification which is an XML-based markup standard. It specifies the encoding, structure and semantics of a patient summary clinical document for exchange. Answer: B is incorrect. PACS is a Picture Archiving and Communication System, by which electronic images are transmitted digitally, often X-rays, ultrasound, MRIs, and a variety of other machine types. This eliminated the need to file, retrieve and transport delicate films. Answer: D is incorrect. CSW is a acronym for the Clinical Social Worker, and is not related to a numerical system or computer term.
Q290. Which of the following servers acts as an intermediary between a network host and other hosts outside the network?
A. File server
B. Database server
C. Proxy server
D. Web server
Answer: C
Explanation: A proxy server is a server (a computer system or an application program) that acts as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers. A client connects to the proxy server, requesting some service, such as a file, connection, web page, or other resource, available from a different server. The proxy server evaluates the request according to its filtering rules. If the request is validated by the filter, the proxy provides the resource by connecting to the relevant server and requesting the service on behalf of the client. A proxy server may optionally alter the client's request or the server's response, and sometimes it may serve the request without contacting the specified server. Answer: B is incorrect. A database server is a computer program that provides database services to other computer programs or computers, as defined by the client-server model. The term may also refer to a computer dedicated to running such a program. Database management systems frequently provide database server functionality, and some DBMSs (e.g., MySQL) rely exclusively on the client-server model for database access. Answer: A is incorrect. A file server on a network is a computer configured to provide a central network location for users to store files and share them with other users on the network. A file server is helpful in implementing centralized administration, backup and restoration, and implementation of shadow copies for user data. A Windows Server 2008 computer can be configured as a file server by adding the File Server role through Server Manager. Answer: D is incorrect. A Web server is a type of server that makes a Web site available on the Internet and manages the interaction and HTTP exchanges at the background. It supplies static content to a Web browser by loading a file from a disk and providing it through out the network to a user's Web browser. As the Web site is on the Internet, the management is done by a Web server. The browser and server interact with each other using HTTP.