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2021 Nov SY0-401 free practice exam

Q511. DRAG DROP 

Drag the items on the left to show the different types of security for the shown devices. Not all fields need to be filled. Not all items need to be used. 

Answer: 

Explanation: 

Mobile Device Security GPS tracking Remote wipe 

Device Encryption 

Strong password 

Server in Data Center Security 

FM-200 

Biometrics 

Proximity Badges 

Mantrap 

For mobile devices, at bare minimum you should have the following security measures in place: 

Screen lock, Strong password, Device encryption, Remote wipe/Sanitation, voice encryption, GPS tracking, Application control, Storage segmentation, Asset tracking as well as Device Access control. 

For servers in a data center your security should include: Fire extinguishers such as FM200 as part of fire suppression; Biometric, proximity badges, mantraps, HVAC, cable locks; these can all be physical security measures to control access to the server. 

References: 

Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, 

Indianapolis, 2014, p 418 


Q512. A security administrator wants to check user password complexity. Which of the following is the 

BEST tool to use? 

A. Password history 

B. Password logging 

C. Password cracker 

D. Password hashing 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The most important countermeasure against password crackers is to use long, complex passwords, which are changed regularly. Password-cracking tools compare hashes from potential passwords with the hashes stored in the accounts database. Each potential password is hashed, and that hash value is compared with the accounts database. If a match is found, the password-cracker tool has discovered a password for a user account. 


Q513. A system administrator has noticed vulnerability on a high impact production server. A recent update was made available by the vendor that addresses the vulnerability but requires a reboot of the system afterwards. Which of the following steps should the system administrator implement to address the vulnerability? 

A. Test the update in a lab environment, schedule downtime to install the patch, install the patch and reboot the server and monitor for any changes 

B. Test the update in a lab environment, backup the server, schedule downtime to install the patch, install the patch, and monitor for any changes 

C. Test the update in a lab environment, backup the server, schedule downtime to install the patch, install the update, reboot the server, and monitor for any changes 

D. Backup the server, schedule downtime to install the patch, installs the patch and monitor for any changes 

Answer:

Explanation: 

We have an update to apply to fix the vulnerability. The update should be tested first in a lab environment, not on the production server to ensure it doesn’t cause any other problems with the server. After testing the update, we should backup the server to enable us to roll back any changes in the event of any unforeseen problems with the update. The question states that the server will require a reboot. This will result in downtime so you should schedule the downtime before installing the patch. After installing the update, you should monitor the server to ensure it is functioning correctly. 


Q514. When a new network drop was installed, the cable was run across several fluorescent lights. The users of the new network drop experience intermittent connectivity. Which of the following environmental controls was MOST likely overlooked during installation? 

A. Humidity sensors 

B. EMI shielding 

C. Channel interference 

D. Cable kinking 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Shielding refers to the process of preventing electronic emissions from your computer systems from being used to gather intelligence and preventing outside electronic emissions from disrupting your information-processing abilities. In this case you are experiencing intermittent connectivity since Electro Magnetic Interference (EMI) was not taken into account when running the cables over fluorescent lighting. 


Q515. An administrator needs to submit a new CSR to a CA. Which of the following is a valid FIRST step? 

A. Generate a new private key based on AES. 

B. Generate a new public key based on RSA. 

C. Generate a new public key based on AES. 

D. Generate a new private key based on RSA. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Before creating a CSR, the applicant first generates a key pair, keeping the private key secret. The private key is needed to produce, but it is not part of, the CSR. The private key is an RSA key. The private encryption key that will be used to protect sensitive information. Note: A CSR or Certificate Signing request is a block of encrypted text that is generated on the server that the certificate will be used on. It contains information that will be included in your certificate such as your organization name, common name (domain name), locality, and country. It also contains the public key that will be included in your certificate. A private key is usually created at the same time that you create the CSR. 


Latest SY0-401 practice:

Q516. Which of the following controls should critical application servers implement to protect themselves from other potentially compromised application services? 

A. NIPS 

B. Content filter 

C. NIDS 

D. Host-based firewalls 

Answer:

Explanation: 


Q517. Which of the following may cause Jane, the security administrator, to seek an ACL work around? 

A. Zero day exploit 

B. Dumpster diving 

C. Virus outbreak 

D. Tailgating 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A zero day vulnerability is an unknown vulnerability so there is no fix or patch for it. One way to attempt to work around a zero day vulnerability would be to restrict the permissions by using an ACL (Access Control List) A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it—this exploit is called a zero day attack. Uses of zero day attacks can include infiltrating malware, spyware or allowing unwanted access to user information. The term “zero day” refers to the unknown nature of the hole to those outside of the hackers, specifically, the developers. Once the vulnerability becomes known, a race begins for the developer, who must protect users. 


Q518. Which of the following technical controls is BEST used to define which applications a user can install and run on a company issued mobile device? 

A. Authentication 

B. Blacklisting 

C. Whitelisting 

D. Acceptable use policy 

Answer:

Explanation: 

White lists are closely related to ACLs and essentially, a white list is a list of items that are allowed. 


Q519. While rarely enforced, mandatory vacation policies are effective at uncovering: 

A. Help desk technicians with oversight by multiple supervisors and detailed quality control systems. 

B. Collusion between two employees who perform the same business function. 

C. Acts of incompetence by a systems engineer designing complex architectures as a member of a team. 

D. Acts of gross negligence on the part of system administrators with unfettered access to system and no oversight. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Least privilege (privilege reviews) and job rotation is done when mandatory vacations are implemented. Then it will uncover areas where the system administrators neglected to check all users’ privileges since the other users must fill in their positions when they are on their mandatory vacation. 


Q520. Which of the following is a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) strategy and is MOST useful for securing data in use? 

A. Email scanning 

B. Content discovery 

C. Database fingerprinting 

D. Endpoint protection 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Data loss prevention (DLP) systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, and networks) to make sure that key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using the data (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data. DLP systems share commonality with network intrusion prevention systems. Endpoint protection provides security and management over both physical and virtual environments.