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2021 Nov HIT-001 practice
Q141. You subscribe to a health care plan that provides health care services for a prepaid, fixed amount of reimbursement. Which of the following types of health insurance do you subscribe to?
A. HMO
B. Point of Service
C. PPO
D. Indemnity Plan
Answer: A
Explanation: Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) offers healthcare services for a prepaid fixed amount of reimbursement. In an HMO, providers and subscribers voluntarily enroll and the HMO assumes responsibility and financial risks. Answer: D is incorrect. Indemnity plan is incorrect as this type of plan allows you to visit any doctor, any hospital and direct your own care. Answer: B is incorrect. . Point of Service (POS) is an agreement where a patient is permitted to choose a provider each time healthcare service is required. Answer: C is incorrect. PPO or preferred provider organization is a network of physicians or healthcare organizations who provide healthcare at a discounted rate in return for higher patient volume.
Q142. While working on installing a new database program in an outpatient dermatology clinic, you see one datafield includes the term "PCP". What does this term most likely mean in this setting?
A. Prior ceiling protocol
B. Pneumocystis pneumonia
C. Primary Care Physician
D. The drug, Phencyclidine
Answer: C
Explanation: A Primary Care Physician is a doctor who provides the first contact for a person with a health condition. They are the primary physician responsible for the overall health of the patient's case and their continuing care. Often in managed health care insurance plans, a PCP must be the one to give referrals for specialists, and most specialists office will keep track of a patient's Primary Care Physician within their records. Answer: D is incorrect. Although PCP can refer to the illegal drug phencyclidine, it is unlikely that this would be a data field in a dermatologist's database. Answer: B is incorrect. Pneumocystis pneumonia is a type of severe respiratory infection caused by a fungus. This is unlikely to be a data field in a dermatologist's database. Answer: A is incorrect. Prior ceiling protocol is a computer science concept involving shared resources protocol, and is not related to a health care situation.
Q143. Which of the following works by using the shared public infrastructure while maintaining privacy through security procedures and tunneling protocols such as the Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)?
A. SSH
B. SMTP
C. IPsec
D. VPN
Answer: D
Explanation: A virtual private network (VPN) is a form of wide area network (WAN) that supplies network connectivity over a possibly long physical distance. A virtual private network is a network that uses a public telecommunication infrastructure, such as the Internet, to provide remote offices or individual users with secure access to their organization's network. A virtual private network can be contrasted with an expensive system of owned or leased lines that can only be used by one organization. The goal of a VPN is to provide the organization with the same capabilities, but at a much lower cost. A VPN works by using the shared public infrastructure while maintaining privacy through security procedures and tunneling protocols such as the Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP). In effect, the protocols, by encrypting data at the sending end and decrypting it at the receiving end, send the data through a tunnel that cannot be entered by data that is not properly encrypted. An additional level of security involves encrypting not only the data, but also the originating and receiving network addresses. Answer: C is incorrect. Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) is a protocol suite for securing Internet Protocol (IP) communications by authenticating and encrypting each IP packet of a data stream. IPsec also includes protocols for establishing mutual authentication between agents at the beginning of the session and negotiation of cryptographic keys to be used during the session. IPsec can be used to protect data flows between a pair of hosts, between a pair of security gateways, or between a security gateway and a host. Answer: A is incorrect. Secure Shell (SSH) is a program that is used for logging into a remote computer over a network. Secure Shell can be used to execute commands on a remote machine and to move files from one machine to another. SSH uses strong authentication and secure communications over insecure channels. Answer: B is incorrect. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending e-mail messages between servers. E-mailing systems use this protocol to send mails over the Internet. SMTP works on the application layer of the TCP/IP or OSI reference model. The SMTP client typically initiates a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection to the SMTP server on the well-known port designated for SMTP, port number 25. However, e-mail clients require POP or IMAP to retrieve mails from e-mail servers.
Q144. The 1996 Healthcare Insurance Portability and Accountability Act included important regulation with regard to access and protection of healthcare information. Two "rules" are often referred to in discussions of healthcare information regulation in the industry, what are these two HIPAA "Rules"?
A. Privacy and Security
B. Accountability and Portability
C. Protection and Integrity
D. Confidentiality and Safety
Answer: A
Explanation: The parts of HIPAA legislation that related to healthcare information protection and access are the "Privacy Rule" and the "Security Rule". The Privacy Rule provides federal protection for personal health information held by certain organizations (covered entities), and gives patients rights with respect to their own health information. The Security Rule is a series of specifications for administrative, physical and technical safeguards for organizations to protect the safety, confidentiality, integrity and access to protected health information. Answer: D is incorrect. Although confidentiality is a goal of the Privacy Rule it does not embody all the stated goals of the HIPAA Privacy Rule. Safety of protected health information is a goal of the Security Rule, but safety is only one aspect of what is embodied in the Security Rule. Answer: B is incorrect. Accountability and Portability of Health Insurance are aspects of the HIPAA law that are dealt with in other areas of the large HIPAA legislation, and do not refer to healthcare information regulation. Answer: A is incorrect. As in answer A, Protection of information is a goal of both the Privacy and Security Rules, but does not embody all the aspects of the regulations. Integrity is an aspect of information security, but again does not embody everything in the Security Rule.
Q145. You are responsible for ensuring that every echocardiogram becomes part of a patient's electronic health record. Which of the following types of data are you responsible for?
A. Video
B. Images
C. Voice
D. Numbers
Answer: A
Explanation: Video data is a type of data that may be found in a patient's electronic health record.
Example of video data would be any study that would be evaluated by seeing motion such as an echocardiogram or barium swallow.
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Q146. You are riding in an elevator with several physicians discussing the care of a patient. The patient's name is used in the conversation, which piece of legislation has been violated?
A. MIPPA
B. Patient Bill of Rights
C. EMTALA
D. HIPPA
Answer: D
Explanation: HIPPA is the legislation designed to insure the privacy and security of personal health information.
Q147. Which of the following ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. DB-25
B. DB-9
C. PS/2
D. USB
Answer: CD
Explanation: The PS/2 and USB ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard.
Q148. Which of the following encryptions is used with flash drives?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Full disk encryption
B. Virtual disk encryption
C. Volume encryption
D. File/folder encryption
Answer: CD
Explanation: Both volume encryption and file/folder encryption can be used with flash drives.Volume encryption works on Desktop and laptop computers, volume-based removable media, e.g., USB flash drives. It provides the same protection as virtual disk encryption, but for a volume instead of a container. It works for all data in the volume including data files, system files, residual data, and metadata.File/folder encryption works on all types of end user devices. It protects individual files/folders (data files only). Answer: A is incorrect. The full disk encryption (FDE) is good for laptop and desktop computers. It protects all data on the media such as data files, system files, residual data, and metadata. All the information encrypted by full disk encryption is protected, assuming that pre-boot authentication is required.
Q149. A user calls and tells you that his computer hangs during the boot process. Which of the following question. him in order to identify the problem?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Has any other changes been made to the computer?
B. Is the mouse pointer visible on the monitor?
C. What is the model of the computer processor?
D. Has any hardware been installed in the computer recently?
Answer: AD
Explanation: In order to identify the problem, you should ask him the following question. Has any hardware been installed in the computer recently? This question. to identify the problem because the newly installed hardware can have the compatibility issue with existing devices. It is a possibility that any existing device may be using the same resource that is used by the newly installed hardware.Has any other changes been made to the computer? This question. to identify the problem if any removal or re-installation of devices has taken place. It is a possibility that hardware has been incorrectly re-installed. Answer: B, C are incorrect. Asking about the visibility of a mouse pointer or computer processor model will not help identify the problem.
Q150. This type of clinical module allows a small private practice of physicians to manage the day to day operations of a medical practice, including patient demographics, scheduling, lists of insurance payers, billing tasks and report generation.
A. Tracking/Auditing
B. Scheduling
C. Order Entry
D. Practice Management Software
Answer: D
Explanation: For a small practice, a desktop PMS or Practice Management Software can handle many of the tasks for an outpatient physician practice. Larger physician groups or clinics often require larger systems with multiple modules to incorporate a variety of functions, but Practice Management Software can work for a small practice and still integrate with an EMR, electronic medical record system. Answer: C is incorrect. Order Entry systems or CPOE - computerized physician order entry systems, is a system where a physician can issue electronic orders to other staff or departments, like pharmacy, radiology, or the laboratory. It does not do scheduling, billing, or any other functions. This is more often a module used in hospitals and large clinics rather than in a small private practice. Answer: A is incorrect. Tracking/Auditing systems allow for the tracking of Release of Information requests, and sometimes other information like financial information or other information subject to audit and tracking. They are used in large healthcare organization and not typically part of a smaller practice. Answer: B is incorrect. Scheduling modules are usually part of a larger system within a hospital or large physician group. A small private practice would have all of those things integrated into a single system like a Practice Management System.