Top Tips Of Regenerate SY0-701 Test Engine

NEW QUESTION 1

A security analyst notices several attacks are being blocked by the NIPS but does not see anything on the boundary firewall logs. The attack seems to have been thwarted Which of the following resiliency techniques was applied to the network to prevent this attack?

• A. NIC Teaming
• B. Port mirroring
• C. Defense in depth
• D. High availability
• E. Geographic dispersal

Answer: C

Explanation:
Defense in depth is a resiliency technique that involves implementing multiple layers of security controls to protect against different types of threats. In this scenario, the NIPS likely provided protection at a different layer than the boundary firewall, demonstrating the effectiveness of defense in depth. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601)

NEW QUESTION 2

Historically, a company has had issues with users plugging in personally owned removable media devices into corporate computers. As a result, the threat of malware incidents is almost constant. Which of the following would best help prevent the malware from being installed on the computers?

• A. AUP
• B. NGFW
• C. DLP
• D. EDR

Answer: D

Explanation:
EDR stands for Endpoint Detection and Response, which is a technology that monitors, detects, and responds to cyber threats on endpoint devices, such as laptops, desktops, servers, or mobile devices. EDR collects and analyzes data from endpoints to identify suspicious or malicious activities, such as malware installation, file modification, registry changes, network connections, or user actions. EDR also provides tools and capabilities to respond to threats, such as isolating infected devices, blocking malicious processes, removing malware, or restoring files.
Historically, a company has had issues with users plugging in personally owned removable media devices into corporate computers. As a result, the threat of malware incidents is almost constant. EDR would best help prevent the malware from being installed on the computers by detecting the insertion of removable media devices and scanning them for any malicious code or files. EDR would also alert the security team of any potential infection and enable them to take immediate action to contain and remediate the threat.

NEW QUESTION 3

A data owner has been tasked with assigning proper data classifications and destruction methods for various types of data contained within the environment.

• A. Yes
• B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4

A company recently suffered a breach in which an attacker was able to access the internal mail servers and directly access several user inboxes. A large number of email messages were later posted online. Which of the following would bast prevent email contents from being released should another breach occur?

• A. Implement S/MIME to encrypt the emails at rest.
• B. Enable full disk encryption on the mail servers.
• C. Use digital certificates when accessing email via the web.
• D. Configure web traffic to only use TLS-enabled channels.

Answer: A

Explanation:
S/MIME stands for Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions, which is a standard for encrypting and digitally signing email messages. S/MIME can provide confidentiality, integrity, authentication and
non-repudiation for email communications. S/MIME can encrypt the emails at rest, which means that the
email contents are protected even if they are stored on the mail servers or the user inboxes. S/MIME can prevent email contents from being released should another breach occur, as the attacker would not be able to decrypt or read the encrypted emails without the proper keys or certificates. Verified References:
Cryptography Concepts – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.8 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-concepts-2/ (See
S/MIME)
Mail Encryption - CompTIA Security+ All-in-One Exam Guide (Exam SY0-301) https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/comptia-security-all-in-one/9780071771474/sec5_chap14.html (See S/MIME)
Symmetric and Asymmetric Encryption – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 6.1 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/symmetric-and-asymmetric-encryption/ (See S/MIME)

NEW QUESTION 5

An engineer wants to inspect traffic to a cluster of web servers in a cloud environment Which of the following solutions should the engineer implement? (Select two).

• A. CASB
• B. WAF
• C. Load balancer
• D. VPN
• E. TLS
• F. DAST

Answer: BC

Explanation:
A web application firewall (WAF) is a solution that inspects traffic to a cluster of web servers in a cloud environment and protects them from common web-based attacks, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and denial-of-service1. A WAF can be deployed as a cloud service or as a virtual appliance in front of the web servers. A load balancer is a solution that distributes traffic among multiple web servers in a cloud environment and improves their performance, availability, and scalability2. A load balancer can also perform health checks on the web servers and route traffic only to the healthy ones. The other options are not relevant to this scenario. A CASB is a cloud access security broker, which is a solution that monitors and controls the use of cloud services by an organization’s users3. A VPN is a virtual private network, which is a solution that creates a secure and encrypted connection between two networks or devices over the internet. TLS is Transport Layer Security, which is a protocol that provides encryption and authentication for data transmitted over a network. DAST is dynamic application security testing, which is a method of testing web applications for vulnerabilities by simulating attacks on them.
References: 1: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/what-is-a-web-application-firewall-waf/ 2:
https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/load-balancing/ 3: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/cloud-access-security-broker-casb/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/vpn-virtual-private-network/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/transport-layer-security-tls/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/dynamic-application-security-testing-dast/ : https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cloud-adoption-framework/ready/azure-best-practices/plan-for-traffic-ins
: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/private-link/inspect-traffic-with-azure-firewall :
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/example-scenario/gateway/application-gateway-before-azur

NEW QUESTION 6

While performing a threat-hunting exercise, a security analyst sees some unusual behavior occurring in an application when a user changes the display name. The security analyst decides to perform a static code analysis and receives the following pseudocode:

Which of the following attack types best describes the root cause of the unusual behavior?

• A. Server-side request forgery
• B. Improper error handling
• C. Buffer overflow
• D. SQL injection

Answer: D

Explanation:
SQL injection is one of the most common web hacking techniques. SQL injection is the placement of malicious code in SQL statements, via web page input12. A SQL injection attack consists of insertion or “injection” of a SQL query via the input data from the client to the application. A successful SQL injection exploit can read sensitive data from the database, modify database data (Insert/Update/Delete), execute administration operations on the database (such as shutdown the DBMS), recover the content of a given file present on the DBMS file system and in some cases issue commands to the operating system3.
According to the pseudocode given in the question, the application takes a user input for display name and concatenates it with a SQL query to update the user’s profile. This is a vulnerable practice that allows an attacker to inject malicious SQL code into the query and execute it on the database. For example, an attacker could enter something like this as their display name:
John'; DROP TABLE users; -
This would result in the following SQL query being executed:
UPDATE profile SET displayname = 'John'; DROP TABLE users; --' WHERE userid = 1;
The semicolon (;) terminates the original update statement and starts a new one that drops the users table. The double dash (–) comments out the rest of the query. This would cause a catastrophic loss of data for the application.

NEW QUESTION 7

An organization experiences a cybersecurity incident involving a command-and-control server. Which of the following logs should be analyzed to identify the impacted host? (Select two).

• A. Application
• B. Authentication
• C. Error
• D. Network
• E. Firewall
• F. System

Answer: DE

Explanation:
Network and firewall logs should be analyzed to identify the impacted host in a cybersecurity incident involving a command-and-control server. A command-and-control server is a central server that communicates with and controls malware-infected devices or bots. A command-and-control server can send commands to the bots, such as downloading additional malware, stealing data, or launching attacks. Network logs can help to identify any suspicious or anomalous network traffic, such as connections to unknown or malicious domains, high-volume data transfers, or unusual protocols or ports. Firewall logs can help to identify any blocked or allowed traffic based on the firewall rules, such as connections to or from the command-and-control server, or any attempts to bypass the firewall. References:
https://www.howtogeek.com/726136/what-is-a-command-and-control-server-for-malware/

NEW QUESTION 8

An organization wants to enable built-in FDE on all laptops Which of the following should the organization ensure is Installed on all laptops?

• A. TPM
• B. CA
• C. SAML
• D. CRL

Answer: A

Explanation:
The organization should ensure that a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is installed on all laptops in order to enable built-in Full Disk Encryption (FDE). TPM is a hardware-based security chip that stores encryption keys and helps to protect data from malicious attacks. It is important to ensure that the TPM is properly configured and enabled in order to get the most out of FDE.

NEW QUESTION 9

The technology department at a large global company is expanding its Wi-Fi network infrastructure at the headquarters building Which of the following should be closely coordinated between the technology, cybersecurity, and physical security departments?

• A. Authentication protocol
• B. Encryption type
• C. WAP placement
• D. VPN configuration

Answer: C

Explanation:
WAP stands for wireless access point, which is a device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network using Wi-Fi or Bluetooth. WAP placement refers to where and how WAPs are installed in a building or area.
WAP placement should be closely coordinated between the technology, cybersecurity, and physical security departments because it affects several aspects of network performance and security, such as:
Coverage: WAP placement determines how well wireless devices can access the network throughout the building or area. WAPs should be placed in locations that provide optimal signal strength and avoid interference from other sources.
Capacity: WAP placement determines how many wireless devices can connect to the network simultaneously without affecting network speed or quality. WAPs should be placed in locations that balance network load and avoid congestion or bottlenecks.
Security: WAP placement determines how vulnerable wireless devices are to eavesdropping or hacking attacks from outside or inside sources. WAPs should be placed in locations that minimize exposure to unauthorized access and maximize encryption and authentication methods.

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the following uses six initial steps that provide basic control over system security by including hardware and software inventory, vulnerability management, and continuous monitoring to minimize risk in all network environments?

• A. ISO 27701
• B. The Center for Internet Security
• C. SSAE SOC 2
• D. NIST Risk Management Framework

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Center for Internet Security (CIS) uses six initial steps that provide basic control over system security, including hardware and software inventory, vulnerability management, and continuous monitoring to minimize risk in all network environments. References:
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 1.1: Compare and contrast different types of security concepts.
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 15-16

NEW QUESTION 11

A large enterprise has moved all its data to the cloud behind strong authentication and encryption. A sales director recently had a laptop stolen, and later, enterprise data was found to have been compromised from a local database. Which of the following was the MOST likely cause?

• A. Shadow IT
• B. Credential stuffing
• C. SQL injection
• D. Man in the browser
• E. Bluejacking

Answer: A

Explanation:
The most likely cause of the enterprise data being compromised from a local database is Shadow IT. Shadow IT is the use of unauthorized applications or devices by employees to access company resources. In this case, the sales director's laptop was stolen, and the attacker was able to use it to access the local database, which was not secured properly, allowing unauthorized access to sensitive data. References:
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - Exam SY0-601

NEW QUESTION 12

A security administrator examines the ARP table of an access switch and sees the following output:

Which of the following is a potential threat that is occurring on this access switch?

• A. DDoSonFa02 port
• B. MAG flooding on Fa0/2 port
• C. ARP poisoning on Fa0/1 port
• D. DNS poisoning on port Fa0/1

Answer: C

Explanation:
ARP poisoning is a type of attack that exploits the ARP protocol to associate a malicious MAC address with a legitimate IP address on a network1. This allows the attacker to intercept, modify or drop traffic between the victim and other hosts on the same network. In this case, the ARP table of the access switch shows that the same MAC address (00-0c-29-58-35-3b) is associated with two different IP addresses (192.168.1.100 and 192.168.1.101) on port Fa0/12. This indicates that an attacker has poisoned the ARP table to redirect traffic intended for 192.168.1.100 to their own device with MAC address 00-0c-29-58-35-3b. The other options are not related to this scenario. DDoS is a type of attack that overwhelms a target with excessive traffic from multiple sources3. MAC flooding is a type of attack that floods a switch with fake MAC addresses to exhaust its MAC table and force it to operate as a hub4. DNS poisoning is a type of attack that corrupts the DNS cache with fake entries to redirect users to malicious websites.
References: 1: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/arp-spoofing/ 2:
https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-knowledge-base/network-tables-mac-routing-arp/ta-p/4184148 3:
https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/ddos-attack/ 4: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/mac-flooding/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/dns-spoofing-poisoning/

NEW QUESTION 13

A security analyst is investigating multiple hosts that are communicating to external IP addresses during the hours of 2:00 a.m - 4:00 am. The malware has evaded detection by traditional antivirus software. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely infecting the hosts?

• A. A RAT
• B. Ransomware
• C. Polymophic
• D. A worm

Answer: A

Explanation:
Based on the given information, the most likely type of malware infecting the hosts is a RAT (Remote Access Trojan). RATs are often used for stealthy unauthorized access to a victim's computer, and they can evade traditional antivirus software through various sophisticated techniques. In particular, the fact that the malware is communicating with external IP addresses during specific hours suggests that it may be under the control of an attacker who is issuing commands from a remote location. Ransomware, polymorphic malware, and worms are also possible culprits, but the context of the question suggests that a RAT is the most likely answer.

NEW QUESTION 14

A security analyst reviews web server logs and finds the following string
gallerys?file—. ./../../../../. . / . ./etc/passwd
Which of the following attacks was performed against the web server?

• A. Directory traversal
• B. CSRF
• C. Pass the hash
• D. SQL injection

Answer: A

Explanation:
Directory traversal is an attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application or a file system to access files or directories that are outside the intended scope. The attacker can use special characters, such as …/ or …\ , to navigate through the directory structure and access restricted files or directories.

NEW QUESTION 15

A systems analyst is responsible for generating a new digital forensics chain -of- custody form Which of the following should the analyst include in this documentation? (Select two).

• A. The order of volatility
• B. A forensics NDA
• C. The provenance of the artifacts
• D. The vendor's name
• E. The date and time
• F. A warning banner

Answer: CE

Explanation:
A digital forensics chain-of-custody form is a document that records the chronological and logical sequence of custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of digital evidence. A digital forensics chain-of-custody form should include the following information:
The provenance of the artifacts: The provenance of the artifacts refers to the origin and history of the digital evidence, such as where, when, how, and by whom it was collected, handled, analyzed, or otherwise controlled.
The date and time: The date and time refer to the specific moments when the digital evidence was collected, handled, analyzed, transferred, or disposed of by each person involved in the chain of custody.
Other information that may be included in a digital forensics chain-of-custody form are:
The identification of the artifacts: The identification of the artifacts refers to the unique identifiers or labels assigned to the digital evidence, such as serial numbers, barcodes, hashes, or descriptions.
The signatures of the custodians: The signatures of the custodians refer to the names and signatures of each person who had custody or control of the digital evidence at any point in the chain of custody.
The location of the artifacts: The location of the artifacts refers to the physical or logical places where the digital evidence was stored or processed, such as a lab, a server, a cloud service, or a device.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/chain-of-custody-in-digital-forensics/

NEW QUESTION 16

Which of the following has been implemented when a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses?

• A. Compensating control
• B. Network segmentation
• C. Transfer of risk
• D. SNMP traps

Answer: A

Explanation:
A compensating control is a type of security control that is implemented in lieu of a recommended security measure that is deemed too difficult or impractical to implement at the present time. A compensating control must provide equivalent or comparable protection for the system or network and meet the intent and rigor of the original security requirement. An example of a compensating control is using a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system to allow connections from only specific internal IP addresses, as it can provide a similar level of defense as a network firewall that may not be compatible with the system. References:
https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/compensating-control
https://reciprocity.com/resources/whats-the-difference-between-compensating-controls-and-mitigating-co

NEW QUESTION 17

Developers are writing code and merging it into shared repositories several times a day. where it is tested automatically. Which of the following concepts does this best represent?

• A. Functional testing
• B. Stored procedures
• C. Elasticity
• D. Continuous Integration

Answer: D

Explanation:
Continuous Integration is the concept that best represents developers writing code and merging it into shared repositories several times a day, where it is tested automatically. Continuous Integration is a software development practice that involves integrating code changes from multiple developers into a shared repository frequently and running automated tests to ensure quality and functionality. Continuous Integration can help to detect and fix errors early, improve collaboration, reduce rework, and accelerate delivery. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-devops
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd

NEW QUESTION 18
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