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NEW QUESTION 1

A security analyst is running a vulnerability scan to check for missing patches during a suspected security rodent During which of the following phases of the response process is this activity MOST likely occurring?

• A. Containment
• B. Identification
• C. Recovery
• D. Preparation

Answer: B

Explanation:
Vulnerability scanning is a proactive security measure used to identify vulnerabilities in the network and systems. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 4

NEW QUESTION 2

Which of the following will increase cryptographic security?

• A. High data entropy
• B. Algorithms that require less computing power
• C. Longer key longevity
• D. Hashing

Answer: A

Explanation:
Data entropy is a measure of the randomness or unpredictability of data. High data entropy means that the data has more variation and less repetition, making it harder to guess or crack. It can increase cryptographic security by making the encryption keys and ciphertext more complex and resistant to brute-force attacks, frequency analysis, etc

NEW QUESTION 3

Which of the following is the MOST secure but LEAST expensive data destruction method for data that is stored on hard drives?

• A. Pulverizing
• B. Shredding
• C. Incinerating
• D. Degaussing

Answer: B

Explanation:
Shredding may be the most secure and cost-effective way to destroy electronic data in any media that contain hard drives or solid-state drives and have reached their end-of-life1. Shredding reduces electronic devices to pieces no larger than 2 millimeters2. Therefore, shredding is the most secure but least expensive data destruction method for data that is stored on hard drives.

NEW QUESTION 4

An organization needs to implement more stringent controls over administrator/root credentials and service accounts. Requirements for the project include:
* Check-in/checkout of credentials
* The ability to use but not know the password
* Automated password changes
* Logging of access to credentials
Which of the following solutions would meet the requirements?

• A. OAuth 2.0
• B. Secure Enclave
• C. A privileged access management system
• D. An OpenID Connect authentication system

Answer: C

Explanation:
A privileged access management (PAM) system is a solution that helps protect organizations against cyberthreats by monitoring, detecting, and preventing unauthorized privileged access to critical resources12. A PAM system can meet the requirements of the project by providing features such as:
Check-in/checkout of credentials: A PAM system can store and manage privileged credentials in a secure vault, and allow authorized users to check out credentials when needed and check them back in when done. This reduces the risk of credential theft, misuse, or sharin2g3.
The ability to use but not know the password: A PAM system can enable users to access privileged accounts or resources without revealing the actual password, using methods such as password injection, session proxy, or single sign-on23. This prevents users from copying, changing, or sharing password2s.
Automated password changes: A PAM system can automatically rotate and update passwords for privileged accounts according to predefined policies, such as frequency, complexity, and uniqueness23
. This ensures that passwords are always strong and unpredictable, and reduces the risk of password
reuse or compromise2.
Logging of access to credentials: A PAM system can record and audit all activities related to privileged access, such as who accessed what credentials, when, why, and what they did with them23. This provides visibility and accountability for privileged access, and enables detection and investigation of anomalies or incidents2.
A PAM system is different from OAuth 2.0, which is an authorization framework that enables third-party applications to obtain limited access to an HTTP service on behalf of a resource owner4. OAuth 2.0 does not provide the same level of control and security over privileged access as a PAM system does.
A PAM system is also different from a secure enclave, which is a hardware-based security feature that creates an isolated execution environment within a processor to protect sensitive data from unauthorized access or modification5. A secure enclave does not provide the same functionality as a PAM system for managing privileged credentials and access.
A PAM system is also different from an OpenID Connect authentication system, which is an identity layer on top of OAuth 2.0 that enables users to verify their identity across multiple websites using a single login6. OpenID Connect does not provide the same scope and granularity as a PAM system for controlling and monitoring privileged access.

NEW QUESTION 5

An organization wants seamless authentication to its applications. Which of the following should the organization employ to meet this requirement?

• A. SOAP
• B. SAML
• C. SSO
• D. Kerberos

Answer: C

Explanation:
Single Sign-On (SSO) is a mechanism that allows users to access multiple applications with a single set of login credentials. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 6

NEW QUESTION 6

A network penetration tester has successfully gained access to a target machine. Which of the following should the penetration tester do next?

• A. Clear the log files of all evidence
• B. Move laterally to another machine.
• C. Establish persistence for future use.
• D. Exploit a zero-day vulnerability.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Establishing persistence for future use is the next step that a network penetration tester should do after gaining access to a target machine. Persistence means creating a backdoor or a covert channel that allows the penetration tester to maintain access to the target machine even if the initial exploit is patched or the connection is lost. Persistence can be achieved by installing malware, creating hidden user accounts, modifying registry keys, or setting up remote access tools. Establishing persistence can help the penetration tester to perform further reconnaissance, move laterally to other machines, or exfiltrate data from the target network.

NEW QUESTION 7

Which of the following procedures would be performed after the root cause of a security incident has been identified to help avoid future incidents from occurring?

• A. Walk-throughs
• B. Lessons learned
• C. Attack framework alignment
• D. Containment

Answer: B

Explanation:
After the root cause of a security incident has been identified, it is important to take the time to analyze what went wrong and how it could have been prevented. This process is known as “lessons learned” and allows organizations to identify potential improvements to their security processes and protocols. Lessons learned typically involve a review of the incident and the steps taken to address it, a review of the security systems and procedures in place, and an analysis of any potential changes that can be made to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future.

NEW QUESTION 8

A technician is setting up a new firewall on a network segment to allow web traffic to the internet while hardening the network. After the firewall is configured, users receive errors stating the website could not be located. Which of the following would best correct the issue?

• A. Setting an explicit deny to all traffic using port 80 instead of 443
• B. Moving the implicit deny from the bottom of the rule set to the top
• C. Configuring the first line in the rule set to allow all traffic
• D. Ensuring that port 53 has been explicitly allowed in the rule set

Answer: D

Explanation:
Port 53 is the default port for DNS traffic. If the firewall is blocking port 53, then users will not be able to resolve domain names and will receive errors stating that the website could not be located.
The other options would not correct the issue. Setting an explicit deny to all traffic using port 80 instead of 443 would block all HTTP traffic, not just web traffic. Moving the implicit deny from the bottom of the rule set to the top would make the deny rule more restrictive, which would not solve the issue. Configuring the first line in the rule set to allow all traffic would allow all traffic, including malicious traffic, which is not a good security practice.
Therefore, the best way to correct the issue is to ensure that port 53 has been explicitly allowed in the rule set. Here are some additional information about DNS traffic:
DNS traffic is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses.
DNS traffic is typically unencrypted, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping.
There are a number of ways to secure DNS traffic, such as using DNS over HTTPS (DoH) or DNS over TLS (DoT).

NEW QUESTION 9

A security administrator needs to provide secure access to internal networks for external partners The administrator has given the PSK and other parameters to the third-party security administrator. Which of the following is being used to establish this connection?

• A. Kerberos
• B. SSL/TLS
• C. IPSec
• D. SSH

Answer: C

Explanation:
IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. It uses encryption,
authentication, and integrity mechanisms to protect data from unauthorized access or modification. IPSec can operate in two modes: transport mode and tunnel mode. In tunnel mode, IPSec can create a virtual private network (VPN) between two endpoints, such as external partners and internal networks. To establish a VPN connection, IPSec requires a pre-shared key (PSK) or other parameters to negotiate the security association. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-vpn

NEW QUESTION 10

After a hardware incident, an unplanned emergency maintenance activity was conducted to rectify the issue. Multiple alerts were generated on the SIEM during this period of time. Which of the following BEST explains what happened?

• A. The unexpected traffic correlated against multiple rules, generating multiple alerts.
• B. Multiple alerts were generated due to an attack occurring at the same time.
• C. An error in the correlation rules triggered multiple alerts.
• D. The SIEM was unable to correlate the rules, triggering the alert

Answer: A

Explanation:
Multiple alerts were generated on the SIEM during the emergency maintenance activity due to unexpected traffic correlated against multiple rules. The SIEM generates alerts when it detects an event that matches a rule in its rulebase. If the event matches multiple rules, the SIEM will generate multiple alerts.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 3: Architecture and Design

NEW QUESTION 11

Which of the following should a technician consider when selecting an encryption method for data that needs to remain confidential for a specific length of time?

• A. The key length of the encryption algorithm
• B. The encryption algorithm's longevity
• C. A method of introducing entropy into key calculations
• D. The computational overhead of calculating the encryption key

Answer: B

Explanation:
When selecting an encryption method for data that needs to remain confidential for a specific length of time, the longevity of the encryption algorithm should be considered to ensure that the data remains secure for the required period. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 3.2 Given a scenario, use appropriate cryptographic methods. Study Guide: Chapter 4, page 131.

NEW QUESTION 12

A large retail store's network was breached recently. and this news was made public. The Store did not lose any intellectual property, and no customer information was stolen. Although no fines were incurred as a result, the Store lost revenue after the breach. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this issue?

• A. Employee training
• B. Leadership changes
• C. Reputation
• D. Identity theft

Answer: C

Explanation:
Reputation is the perception or opinion that customers, partners, investors, etc., have about a company or its products and services. It can affect the revenue and profitability of a company after a network breach, even if no intellectual property or customer information was stolen, because it can damage the trust and confidence of the stakeholders and reduce their willingness to do business with the company

NEW QUESTION 13

A company would like to set up a secure way to transfer data between users via their mobile phones The company's top pnonty is utilizing technology that requires users to be in as close proximity as possible to each other. Which of the following connection methods would BEST fulfill this need?

• A. Cellular
• B. NFC
• C. Wi-Fi
• D. Bluetooth

Answer: B

Explanation:
NFC allows two devices to communicate with each other when they are in close proximity to each other, typically within 5 centimetres. This makes it the most secure connection method for the company's data transfer requirements.

NEW QUESTION 14

Which of the following BEST describes the method a security analyst would use to confirm a file that is downloaded from a trusted security website is not altered in transit or corrupted using a verified checksum?

• A. Hashing
• B. Salting
• C. Integrity
• D. Digital signature

Answer: A

Explanation:
Hashing is a cryptographic function that produces a unique fixed-size output (i.e., hash value) from an input (i.e., data). The hash value is a digital fingerprint of the data, which means that if the data changes, so too does the hash value. By comparing the hash value of the downloaded file with the hash value provided by the security website, the security analyst can verify that the file has not been altered in transit or corrupted.

NEW QUESTION 15

A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is evaluating (he dangers involved in deploying a new ERP system tor the company. The CISO categorizes the system, selects the controls mat apply to the system, implements the controls, and then assesses the success of the controls before authorizing the system Which of the following is the CISO using to evaluate Hie environment for this new ERP system?

• A. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
• B. CIS Critical Security Controls
• C. NIST Risk Management Framevtoik
• D. ISO 27002

Answer: C

Explanation:
The CISO is using the NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) to evaluate the environment for the new ERP system. The RMF is a structured process for managing risks that involves categorizing the system, selecting controls, implementing controls, assessing controls, and authorizing the system.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 4: Risk Management, pp. 188-191.

NEW QUESTION 16

A company Is planning to install a guest wireless network so visitors will be able to access the Internet. The stakeholders want the network to be easy to connect to so time is not wasted during meetings. The WAPs are configured so that power levels and antennas cover only the conference rooms where visitors will attend meetings. Which of the following would BEST protect the company's Internal wireless network against visitors accessing company resources?

• A. Configure the guest wireless network to be on a separate VLAN from the company's internal wireless network
• B. Change the password for the guest wireless network every month.
• C. Decrease the power levels of the access points for the guest wireless network.
• D. Enable WPA2 using 802.1X for logging on to the guest wireless network.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Configuring the guest wireless network on a separate VLAN from the company's internal wireless network will prevent visitors from accessing company resources. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 4

NEW QUESTION 17

A new security engineer has started hardening systems. One of the hardening techniques the engineer is using involves disabling remote logins to the NAS. Users are now reporting the inability to use SCP to transfer files to the NAS, even though the data is still viewable from the users' PCs. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

• A. TFTP was disabled on the local hosts
• B. SSH was turned off instead of modifying the configuration file
• C. Remote login was disabled in the networkd.conf instead of using the sshd.conf.
• D. Network services are no longer running on the NA

Answer: B

Explanation:
Disabling remote logins to the NAS likely involved turning off SSH instead of modifying the configuration file. This would prevent users from using SCP to transfer files to the NAS, even though the data is still viewable from the users' PCs. Source: TechTarget

NEW QUESTION 18
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